MGT/312T: Organizational Behavior for Managers

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MGT312T Entire Classwork - Organizational Behavior for Managers

 

MGT312T Week 1 Summative Assessment Organizational Behavior
MGT 312T Week 1 Discussion Questions
MGT312T Week 1 Summative Assessment Organizational Behavior
MGT/312T WEEK 1 Summative Assessment: Organizational Behavior Exam

MGT/312T Week 1

Everything listed for Week 1 is included in purchase!! 

 

1. Summative Assessment: Organizational Behavior Exam

2. MGT/312T Week 1 Discussion Question

3. BONUS - Apply: To Tell or Not to Tell?

4. BONUS - Practice: Connect LearnSmart Activity
5. BONUS - Practice: Week 1 Knowledge Check


 

MGT/312T Week 1: Summative Assessment: Organizational Behavior Exam

  1. Gallup is a professional services organization that studies employee engagement across industries all over the world. Gallup cites that its research attempts to "measure the enthusiasm of employees between their work and workplace." As a result, this organization is dedicated to codifying which principle of organizational behavior?
  2. Suppose that a company's president decides to develop a policy to increase the company's commitment to its employees and then develops a set of procedures to implement this policy. The president is engaged in which management function?
  3. Sarah is a manager at a multinational accounting firm. She is responsible for leading a team of 10 accountants and ensuring that the firm's clients receive high-quality services. Which of the following best describes Sarah as an effective manager in the field of organizational behavior?
  4. Jonathan has started wearing a new brand of clothing because all of his friends have started wearing it too. What term best describes Jonathan's behavior?
  5. After reading the "Trader Joe's Keeps Things Fresh" case study, which business actions by Trader Joe's demonstrate contingency thinking?
  6. Jean serves as a vice president in charge of innovation within her organization. She leads five cross-functional innovation pods which are working diligently on finding the "next big idea" to lead the company to its next frontier of growth. She assesses the stage of each team's progress, and allocates funding based on the compelling nature of each pod's pitch. Which type of category of effective management does Jean's role most closely align with?
  7. A manager at a large tech company has been successful in leading their team to meet project deadlines, resolving conflicts among team members, and creating a positive work environment. Which personal attribute best explains the manager's success in their role?
  8. After reading the "Trader Joe's Keeps Things Fresh" case study, how does Trader Joe's design jobs for increased job satisfaction and higher performance? Select all that apply.
  9. In the context of organizational behavior, which of the following is an enduring change of behavior that results from experience?
  10. Rather than assuming that there is one "best" or universal way to manage people in organizations, which of the following should organizational behavior researchers use to try to identify how different situations can best be understood and handled?
  11. Adriana, a manager at Confections Bakery, observed a significant decline in bakery sales last quarter, after the holiday rush. She shared the performance data with the owner, but the owner dismissed the concern because she has seen this decline during the same period in past years, and was confident that sales would return to normal levels. Unsatisfied with this response, Adriana analyzed the sales data further and discovered a large discrepancy in the inventory, which was the reason for the sales decline. Which critical thinking approaches were present in this scenario? Select all that apply.
  12. What are some ways in which critical thinking contributes to a better understanding of organizational behavior in the workplace? Select all that apply.
  13. As a manager, Jermaine defines goals, sets performance objectives, and identifies action steps for accomplishing them. Jermaine is engaged in which management function?
  14. Susan, a manager at Toddler Toys, recently completed her undergraduate degree in business and aims to apply organizational behavior practices to enhance her managerial effectiveness and improve the business. Which practices would be most effective for her to integrate? Select all that apply.
  15. Riya, a manager at Planet Save, is using spreadsheet software to prepare a departmental budget. Riya is using which managerial skill according to Katz?

 

MGT/312T Week 1 Discussion Question

Includes Three (3) A+ Answers!

Keeping Mintzberg's (1989) framework in mind, which categorizes effective management into 10 essential skills across three roles: interpersonal, informational, and decisional. To better understand these concepts, please reference Section 1.3 of your reading. Then, reflect on the best managers you've worked with recently or in the past.

 

Respond to the following questions with a minimum of 175 words:

  1. What made these managers particularly great at managing people?
  2. What skills in each of the 3 categories do you think they were best at and why?
  3. As you compare different managers and the essential skills that they were best at, how were they all similar or different?

 

 

*** BONUS TUTORIALS INCLUDED IN WEEK 1 TUTORIAL SET ***

 

 

MGT/312T Week 1 Apply: To Tell or Not to Tell?

  1. Assume you are a nursing director for a nursing home. You've been working at your facility for a few short months when you learn that the company that owns the home has been improperly overbilling Medicare for the care and services provided to your residents. You bring this to the attention of the company's management. They do nothing. You then notify the appropriate authorities (you are now a whistleblower). For this, and a host of other reasons, you quit.
  2. Why are ethics considered so important when studying organizational behavior?
  3. The contingency approach suggests that
  4. Overcharging Medicare for care and services provided to patients is an example of ______ behavior
  5. Ethics is primarily concerned with
  6. In an ethical dilemma such as the one presented above
  7. In the case above, this presents a(n) _____
  8. The case above represents an extreme example of unethical and illegal conduct. These are the exception in the business community. Which of the following statements about this behavior is false?
  9. Problem solving and critical thinking are ______ because they use logic and reasoning to develop and evaluate options

 

MGT/312T Week 1: Practice: Connect LearnSmart Activity

NOTE: Questions are probably not in the same order.

  1. Select the two items that apply to a contingency approach to management.
  2. The term ___________ describes an interdisciplinary field concerned with understanding and managing people at work.
  3. The two broad categories of OB concepts and theories include______ factors and ______ factors.

  4. Select the reasons ethics are important in business.
  5. Which of the following statements about unethical behavior in the workplace is true:
  6. An interdisciplinary field focused on understanding and managing people at work is______.
  7. Select ways employees can address unethical behaviors.
  8. The idea behind ___________ is that you know your personal strengths and weaknesses.
  9. To solve problems effectively, it is important to consider necessary ________, such as people who will provide support.
  10. Knowing your own abilities, values, strengths, and weaknesses as well as how others view you in terms of these factors is referred to as ______________.
  11. The field of __________ encompasses research and practice from various disciplines like anthropology, psychology, statistics, political science, vocational counselling, and management.
  12. Your understanding of who you are and what your preferences are can be improved by a process called ___________. (Enter one word in each blank
  13. Select the weaknesses of common sense:
  14. Select interpersonal skills that foster respectful interactions.
  15. According to proponents of a contingency approach to management, in order to be effective as a manager, you need to:
  16. OB uses both a systematic and _________ approach to understanding people.
  17. Which of the following statements about OB is true?
  18. In organizational behavior, knowing when to apply OB knowledge and tools to a particular circumstance is an important part of:

  19. The definition of a(n) _______ is when our desired outcomes do not match the actual situation.

  20. Your understanding of who you are and what your preferences are can be improved by a process called ___________. (Enter one word in each blank.)

  21. The ability to motivate employees in different ways, provide useful feedback, and manage productive teams are all aspects of a manager’s performance, and doing these things well gives a manager
  22. Deciding whether behaviors are good or bad, right or wrong, is a concern in the field of:
  23. Reward systems, decision making, leader behavior, and organizational culture are all affected by _______ conduct.
  24. According to anonymous surveys, what percentage of high school students admitted to cheating on tests?
  25. Widespread corporate corruption has led to which two of the following?
  26. Select reasons students might cheat.
  27. Match the term with its characteristics.
  28. A strong and effective employee or manager must recognize and understand
  29. The various characteristics that make individuals unique are known as
  30. Dependence on hindsight, lack of rigor, and being overly subjective are all elements of:
  31. A concern with identifying right and wrong behavior is referred to as _______.
  32. Masahiro prefers to work as a team member. He enjoys working collaboratively with others. This preference is a(n)
  33. Which of the following statements about cheating are true?
  34. When there are two choices in a situation, and neither resolves the issue in an ethically acceptable manner, a(n) ________ exists.
  35. A CEO who wishes to run a sustainable business should take which approach?
  36. True or false: Working for an unethical business will not cause you problems as long as you conduct yourself in an ethical manner.
  37. Which of the following is an example of unethical behavior at work?
  38. The systematic process of closing gaps between a desired outcome and actual situation is called ______.

  39. Place the steps to the 3-step approach to problem solving in order.
  40. When there is a difference between a goal and the actual outcome, this is known as a(n)
  41. When we attempt to meet our goals through a systematic process of closing gaps between goals and outcomes, we are
  42. Select all disciplines that OB draws from:
  43. A person seeking to understand and manage people at work is likely to study ________, which is an interdisciplinary field.

  44. Knowing which OB tools to use and under what circumstances is referred to as a(n) ________ approach to managing people.
  45. Effective managers favor the contingency approach because:
  46. Skills that are related to technical know-how, such as bookkeeping or financial analysis, are known as skills.
  47. True or false: Most illegal unethical acts are prosecuted.
  48. Skills dealing with human relationship and interactions are referred to as _______ skills.
  49. Select personal attributes related to goodwill and trust.
  50. When someone asks if you know right from wrong, that person is most likely questioning your
  51. Which of the following statements about unethical behavior is true?
  52. True or false: Careers can be tarnished by the unethical behavior of others.
  53. A study of graduates, including MBAs, cited which of the following as the strongest predictor of student cheating?
  54. It is _________ responsibility to confront ethical issues in the workplace.
  55. Select all that are influenced by person factors.
  56. Which of the following are examples of situation factors?
  57. Which of the following statements about situation factors is true?
  58. It is important to understand the interaction of person factors and ______ factors.
  59. Select the levels that OB distinguishes among.
  60. It is known that the same event can:
  61. Studying the dynamics of conflicts among coworkers is a study of what level of OB?
  62. Problem-_________ efforts can be adversely affected if the problem is incorrectly identified.
  63. In the systems approach to OB, person and situation factors are considered _____, which the three levels of analysis are categorized as processes or __________.
  64. OB concepts can be applied to the problem-_______ process to overcome challenges and improve your performance.
  65. Which of the following statements about constraints in selecting problem-solving solutions is true?
  66. Which of the following are potential constraints during problem solving?
  67. ________ a problem means opting for a solution that is satisfactory but not the most ideal.
  68. Which of the following are important to consider when selecting alternative solutions?
  69. The best way to increase self-awareness is through:
  70. Three main weaknesses of _________ are relying on hindsight, lack of rigor, and lack of objectivity.
  71. To demonstrate credibility through performance, a manager should be able to:
  72. Select the areas of OB that have been shown to have a powerful influence on ethical conduct at work.
  73. The myriad external elements that influence what we do, how we do it, and the outcomes of our actions are called
  74. True or false: There are only a few situation factors that can impact an outcome when you are trying to accomplish something.
  75. Which of the following are the three levels that OB distinguishes among?
  76. The distinction between person and environment is critical to:
  77. Place each item into the correct category according to the Organizing Framework for Understanding and Applying OB. (Note: some items may belong to more than one category)
  78. Studying a faulty reward system that unfairly distributes raises is a study of what level of OB?
  79. Select the three common elements in choosing among alternatives to arrive at an effective solutions
  80. Select examples of why people and environment are not static.
  81. Select aspects of OB to be considered in an organization if many employees begin quitting their jobs.
  82. Which two of the following leaders of business schools were found by researchers to be most likely to require ethics courses?
  83. Choosing among available options is not always a pure choice between right and wrong, which means that sometimes one faces a(n)

  84. In choosing among alternatives to qualify a solution, a person is focusing on ______ if he or she considers such things, as ethical implications, personal values, profits, and/or company reputation.

Wk 1 - Practice: Week 1 Knowledge Check

 

1. The final step of the 3-Step Approach of the Organizing Framework is

2. What kind of a response is a manager completing when he or she eliminates the situation in which the problem occurs?

3. True or False: The four skills most desired by employers are critical thinking, technical expertise, problem solving and financial managment.

4. True or False: Unethical behavior erodes trust, and also negatively affects cooperation in organizations.

5. The commonsense approach is about knowing which OB tools to use and under what circumstances.

6. Which of the following is Step 1 in the three steps of the applied approach to problem solving?

7. A problem is a gap between an actual and a desired situation.

8. True or False: Our tendency to overlook the unethical behavior of another when it's in our interest to remani ignorant is called "the slippery slope".

9. True or False: Results published by the Association of American Colleges and Universities show business leaders generally find new employees to be deficiently prepared for their success in business.

10. ________ occurs when we hold others less accountable for unethical behavior when it's carried out through third parties.

 

 

 

 
MGT312T Week 2 Organizational Behavior in Context
MGT312T Week 2 Discussion Questions
MGT312T Week 2 Discussion Questions
MGT312T Week 2 Organizational Behavior in Context

MGT/312T Week 2

 

Everything listed for Week 2 is included in purchase!! 

 

1. Organizational Behavior in Context

2. Discussion Question #1

3. Discussion Question #2

4.BONUS - Social Perception and Managing Diversity Quiz Questions and Answers

5. BONUS - Individual Differences Quiz
6. BONUS - Practice: Week 2 Knowledge Check

 

 

Organizational Behavior in Context (with BONUS Questions & Answers)

  1. Individual differences (IDs) is a broad category used to collectively describe the vast number of attributes (e.g., traits and behaviors) that describe you as a person. It is helpful to think of IDs in terms of their relative stability. Intelligence is relatively fixed whereas attitudes and emotions are more flexible and under your control. Matt has high job involvement. Which of the following is most likely to be true of Matt?
  2. Emily is considered to be an excellent production manager. However, she tends to give attention only to those aspects of the organization that affect her own production operation and tends to ignore the concerns of other departments. This scenario exemplifies which of these?
  3. Tonya works at Makers Marketing Inc. Her office tends to be very busy and noisy. As a result, Tonya frequently has to consciously decide what information to pay attention to and what information to ignore. Tonya is using which of these as a mechanism for paying attention to and selecting information?
  4. At ABC Corp., the HR department is conducting a training program on effective communication skills for all employees. As part of the program, they are emphasizing the importance of incongruent body language and its impact on communication. Which of the following is the most common negative impact of incongruent body language during a business meeting?
  5. At GHI Inc., the management team is concerned as they notice individuals with different perspectives and experiences feel excluded and disengaged. What is the most effective strategy for the management team at GHI Inc. to mitigate the negative impact of homophily on business performance?
  6. Jason has been promoted to a new leadership role in his organization. As an official with authority, how can he contribute to improved business performance through his leadership style?
  7. A candidate with an intellectual disability is overlooked by a recruiter even though he possesses skills that are perfect for the job. In this scenario, which perceptual error does the recruiter make?
  8. Mason, the director of engineering at Frost Inc., was very impressed with the fact that Blake, a production engineer, had not missed a single day of work in the past year. Mason rated Blake very high on all dimensions of his performance appraisal based on this one aspect of Blake's performance, disregarding the fact that Blake's performance was poor in two quarters of the year. This error in the performance appraisal process is known as which of these?
  9. Alex, a newly hired manager at ABC Corp., is trying to build relationships with his team members. He is aware that conflicts can arise in the workplace and wants to prevent them from affecting the team's performance. What is the most effective way for Alex to prevent relationship conflict among team members at ABC Corp.?
  10. At DEF Corporation, employees are trained on the importance of the norm of reciprocity in their workplace interactions to help strengthen team dynamics and collaboration. Over the last quarter, product sales have dropped and your boss asked you, along with a new member that just started at the company last week, to deliver a presentation on the sale trends at the team meeting next week. Overwhelmed with other projects, you did not contribute nearly as much time and work as your teammate, but you are relieved because the presentation still went well as a result of her extra work. Considering the concepts of reciprocity, what is the best way to build this relationship?
  11. Your company, in Virginia, is sending you to their headquarters in Japan to support with training employees on a newly acquired ordering system. Considering Japan's culture and Hofstede's 5 dimensions of national cultural values, which is likely the best training structure to use?
  12. At XYZ Inc., the management team has decided to adopt a distributed leadership approach to improve business performance and decision-making processes. In this type of leadership, responsibilities are shared among multiple individuals rather than being held by a single leader. How will this approach better support the team?
  13. As the team lead for a new project at your company, you are assigning tasks for each of your team members. Janice's problem-solving style aligns mostly to Sensation-Thinking. To maximize Janice's performance, which task should you assign to Janice?
  14. You are a manager at ABC Manufacturing, and you enjoy responsibility and success in your work. You have been newly appointed as the leader of a team with jobs that seem dull and routine. You decide to move quickly to expand these jobs so that members get increased satisfaction from more challenging tasks. Basically, you want them to experience things that you value in work. Instead of designing the team members' jobs to best fit their needs, you plan to design their jobs to best fit yours. Which perception/attribution error are you displaying and how will this likely impact your team?
  15. As an experienced team leader, Nancy uses which of these to think about the appropriate steps involved in running a meeting?
  16. Given that Jason, a new employee at ABC Manufacturing, sees the world as a threatening place, he would be described as which of these?
  17. Andre is afraid of public speaking. He avoids giving presentations in class as much as possible. His fear is associated with being unprepared or not knowing what to say. Which of the following is an example of avoidance learning?
  18. Amid organizational changes, employees fear making mistakes that could lead to demotions. They prioritize error-free work, seek guidance, and strive to maintain their current job positions to avoid unfavorable career setbacks. What response best reflects this scenario according to expectancy theory? 
  19. Lars tells Estefan that he has a new appreciation for Gary's sense of humor after the recent offi ceparty, where Gary, an older custodian, told smart, hilarious stories and jokes. Before the party, Larsthought Gary was simply lighthearted, but now he thinks Gary's humor is more sophisticated and witty. What perceptual defense mechanism does this describe?
  20. Lars tells Estefan that he has a new appreciation for Gary’s sense of humor after the recent office party, where Gary, and older custodian, told mark, hilarious stories and jokes. Before the party, Lars though Gary was simply lighthearted, but now he things Gary’s humor is more sophisticated and witty. What perception defense mechanism does this describe?
  21. A student believes that cheating is wrong but cheats on a test. Which answer best reflects how a student might try to reduce cognitive dissonance?
  22. Rami is working hard to achieve his goal of being promoted to manager. He is regularly taking on new challenges, volunteering for new projects, and seeking out feedback from his manager. In return, his manager has recognized his hard work and dedication, and has promised to keep him in mind for the next management opening. In the terms of equity theory, what do these represent for Rami?
  23. Clifford is struggling to meet his performance goals. If he is following the principles of behavioral self-management, where would he begin?
  24. Always looking for ways to improve the benefits that his employees receive. Which of the following benefits would be considered a hygiene benefit, according to Herberg’s theory?
  25. Arturo is a college student struggling in school. He is failing his exams, and his grades are dropping. He is losing motivation to study or seek help, which makes his grades drop even further. Which of the following statements best describes how reciprocal determinism could be used to explain Arturo’s behavior?
  26. In which situations does ethical behavior become challenging?
  27. Which of the following is the best example of how the manager can use punishment to achieve his goal?
  28. Parmesta is a project manager leading a team of software develop0ers tasked with developing a new mobile app for her company. The project has a tight deadline, and Parmesta needs to ensure that each team member has clear objectives to meet the project’s goals. Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies the concept of assigned goals in the context of managing the mobile app development project
  29. Damon is struggling to meet the company’s sales goals. His manager decides to use shaping to help him improve his performance. Which of the following is the most appropriate feedback and reward that the manager can give Damon?
  30. John was born and raised in a culture that values hard work and production, and he has a strong work ethic. He is also a member of a religious group that emphasizes the importance of helping others. Which of the following is most likely to be a learned need for John?
  31. Roumie is known by his employees as the bulldog, as he demonstrates a devoted single-mindedness and complete inflexibility in how work gets done. Even if the employees might suggest a faster or more efficient way of getting things done, his closed-mindedness is the hallmark indicator of his managerial decision-making style. He is famous for saying, “This is how it’s done”. Which concept best describes Roumie’s personality characteristic?
  32. Argyris argues persuasively that many jobs are structured in a way that they conflict with the basic growth needs of a healthy adult. Employees are expected to be passive, dependent, and subordinate. Given these observations, at which level of the organization does Argyris predict the most conflict will occur?
  33. According to attribution theory, which of the following factors is most likely to influence how a person interprets future events?
  34. Chuck is a warehouse manager and has been for most of his career. Much of his work involves supervising employees as they move fragile, large, and/or heavy packages from one location to another. Which selection best represents how Chuck would assess physical abilities of employees?
  35. Ashley enjoys painting. She paints in her spare time and does not sell her paintings. She finds painting to be relaxing and enjoyable, and she likes the challenge of creating something new. Which of the following statements best describes Ashley’s motivation for painting?
  36. Titus is told to take a package to the top floor. While most of his experience has been in the mailroom, he is learning to pay attention to details like status, occupation, and personal characteristics when addressing employees at this Fortune 500 company. On the top floor, he observes his package is for Sandra, who has the largest corner office. He associates her large office with her status and occupation. Which selection best represents the element of perception?
  37. Leslie, an 8-year-old child, has moved to a new home by the airport. She comes to associate they loud sounds of airplanes with her loneliness and sadness, even after she gets used to the new home. Which of the following statements best describes the type of conditioning that is happening in this scenario?
  38. Ana is getting ready to cross the street at the crosswalk but notices there is a car coming, and it appears that the driver is distracted. The car is not slowing down. She perceives the danger and stays on the sidewalk. What selection best reflects this perception process?
  39. Romina has loved playing sports since childhood and continues to play even though her day job involves office work. She thrives on the camaraderie and teamwork, and that experience carries over to the workplace. What response best represents a key motivator for Romina?
  40. Diversity applies to:
  41. Match the years and defining invention to the generations.
  42. Rank the four steps in the stereotyping process with the first step at the top.
  43. Which of the following are true concerning implicit cognition?
  44. Select barriers to implementing successful diversity programs.
  45. Affirmative action programs have generated many opportunities for _____ and ________.
  46. A cognitive process that enables us to Interpret and understand our surroundings is called:
  47. The ___________ is an unseen barrier that stops women from advancing to higher-level positions.
  48. An individual’s set of beliefs about the characteristics and attributes of a group is called a:
  49. Match the term to the correct definition.
  50. Select barriers to successful diversity programs at work.
  51. One’s inclination to take more credit for success than for failure is called _____-______ bias.
  52. Select predicted changes in diversity in the United States between 2020 and 2060.
  53. Assigning someone’s behavior to his or her personal characteristics instead of the circumstances is called:
  54. Match the dimension of attribution theory to the
  55. Studies show that women have a harder time being perceived as effective leaders, which is a result of a negative __________.
  56. Studies have shown that
  57. Recognition that the organization’s markets and constituencies are culturally diverse is called a(n) _____-and-_______ perspective on diversity.
  58. When someone has a job that takes less education than they have, it is called __________.
  59. Gardenswartz and Rowe identified layers of _________ to help distinguish the important ways in which people differ.
  60. True or false: The diversity climate is not very important within a firm.
  61. Adopting policies and procedures that meet the needs of all employees encourages more _______ in organizations.
  62. Characteristics of the perceiver include
  63. Kelley hypothesized that people make causal attributions by observing three dimensions of behavior: _________, __________, and __________.
  64. Managers can reduce the effect of stereotypes by
  65. Which of the following statements about workplace challenges for LGBTQ people are true?
  66. Examples of external influences of diversity are:
  67. Generational differences in the workforce
  68. The number of race-based ____________ cases deemed to have reasonable cause by US EEO commission more than doubled from 1995 to 2015. (one blank/one word).
  69. Self-serving bias implies that people will credit successes to controllable ________ factors and failures to uncontrollable ________ factors.
  70. Employees’ evaluations of leader effectiveness are strongly influenced by their __________ knowledge of what constitutes good and poor leadership.
  71. __________ dimensions of diversity represent differences that we have a greater ability to influence or control.
  72. An intervention intended to give management an opportunity to correct past imbalance, injustice, mistake, or outright discrimination is called
  73. Which of the following are true concerning perceptions in performance appraisals?
  74. Which of the following describe circumstances facing people with disabilities?
  75. Causal attributions refer to
  76. Select the components or strategies for successful diversity training in organizations.
  77. Select improvements made in women’s equality by 2018.
  78. Organizational behavior emphasizes ______ perception rather than object perception.
  79. Managing diversity and targeting specific demographics
  80. People with disabilities
  81. The _______ option in Thomas’ framework means people are willing to adapt or change their views for the sake of creating positive relationships.
  82. Select ways firms can retain an aging workforce.
  83. The _______ option in Thomas’ framework is based on the action of moving the diverse person off to the side.
  84. Managers should remember that attribution biases may lead managers to misinterpret employee behavior and take inappropriate actions.
  85. The _______ option in Thomas’ framework means that differences are squelched or discouraged.
  86. The _____ ________ option in Thomas’ framework is based on the belief that good relationships can rise above differences.
  87. The idea that older workers are less motivated is a
  88. The _______/_______ option in Thomas’ framework has the goal to either increase or decrease the number of diverse people at all levels of the firm.
  89. The _____ option in Thomas’ framework involves acknowledging differences but not valuing or accepting them.
  90. Programs to help people come back to their careers after taking a break are known as
  91. Select the four layers of diversity
  92. Which of the following are true considering managerial implications of attributional tendencies?
  93. The _____ option in Thomas’ framework is based on the premise that eventually all people will learn to blend in or become like the dominant group.
  94. The ______ option in Thomas’ framework means people refute that differences exist.
  95. When considering attribution theory, managers should remember that we tend to attribute behavior to ______ causes.
  96. The statistical measurements of populations and their qualities such as age, gender, race, and income over time are _____________.

 

MGT/312T Week 2 Discussion Question

Includes A+ Answer!

Post a total of 3 substantive responses over 2 separate days for full participation. This includes your initial post and 2 replies to other students. Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

  • Consider your current or most recent position. What are some ways, if any, in which your organization encourages diversity?
  • In your opinion, what are some areas of opportunity with regard to addressing diversity within your organization?

 

MGT/312T Week 2 Discussion Question

Includes A+ Answer!

Reflect on organizations that you are a part of or have been part of in the past. Consider the influence of their cultures on the morale and performance of the employees. As you develop your reflections, integrate relevant theories from your textbook to deepen your analysis and provide a theoretical framework for your observations.

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

  • How did the cultures of the organizations affect the performance and the morale of the employees?
  • What were the main differences you noticed between organizations with a strong, positive cultural identity and those that were less positive or had a weak organizational culture?
  • What strategies would you recommend to improve an organization’s culture? Provide an example to support your response.

 

*** BONUS TUTORIALS INCLUDED IN THIS TUTORIAL SET ***

 

Apply: Individual Differences

  1. According to Eagly and Carli, and also supported by subsequent data analysis by the textbook authors, women have broken through the glass ceiling. Based on what you have read in the case, which of the following trends in
  2. The statistics below are accurate updates to Eagly and Carli's research indicating that women have finally broken through the glass ceiling. If LeasePlan continues its diversity management activities, as described in the case, select the most closely aligned statistic to its potential outcomes.
  3. Which of Thomas's generic action options for managing diversity is most illustrated in the case?
  4. Based on the information in the case, LeasePlan implemented changes to mitigate which diversity barrier?
  5. Based on the information in the case, which of the following barriers and challenges to managing diversity that were identified in the text appear to have been present at Lease Plan?
  6. Which type of diversity might be an issue in the situation described in the case?
  7. Which type of stereotype is described in the beginning of the video?
  8. Which of the following is the basis for Justice Ginsberg's opinion that Guido and Rankin have legitimate grounds for a lawsuit?
  9. Which of the following might be part of a "business case" in favor of the Mount Lemmon fire district hiring employees with a broader range of ages?
  10. If the Mount Lemmon fire district attempts to implement age diversity initiatives, but these initiatives are defeated because the district is concerned that younger firefighters will be treated worse as a result, which of the following barriers mentioned in Section 4.6 is this an example of?
  11. What is the main problem here for technology companies?
  12. Which of the following is not a cause of workforce composition issues at technology companies?
  13. What can be a strong reason that top universities graduate black and Hispanic computer science and computer engineering students at twice the rate that leading technology companies hire them?
  14. If technology companies attempt to implement an affirmative-action type of diversity program, in order to solve the problem, which of the following would probably NOT result?
  15. A banker who has done several deals with Todd McFarlane and the McFarlane Company and knew that the company tends to be fiscally conservative would be less likely to stereotype Todd McFarlane as a risky, artistic type. Which perceiver characteristic best explains this outcome?
  16. Clearly Todd McFarlane has achieved a great deal of success both personally and in his company. However, it is also possible that he attributes all of his good fortune to his own efforts while placing the blame for any bad fortune on others. If this is accurate, then this would be an example of
  17. Todd Mcfarlane and others highlighted Todd's business skills, his artistic abilities, and his success in various types of media. Which of the dimensions of behavior from Kelley's Model of Attribution is reflected here?
  18. According to Eagly and Carli, and also supported by subsequent data analysis by the textbook authors, women have broken through the glass ceiling. Based on what you have read in the case, which of the following trends in gender diversity appears to be most supported by the outcomes of LeasePlan's program changes?

Practice: Social Perception and Managing Diversity

1. True or false. The percentage of non-Hispanic whites will grow in the US by 2060.

2. Which of the following statements regarding attribution theory are true?

3. When considering attribution theory, managers should remember that we tend to attribute behavior to ________ causes.

4. Heider’s attribution theory proposed that behavior can be attributed to either ______ factors, such as ability, or _______ factors, such as a difficult task.

5. Match the population size and event to the generations.

6. Match the years and defining invention to the generations.

7. Match the traits to the generations.

8. Match the dimension of attribution theory to the explanation.

9. Match the dimension of attribution theory to the explanation.

10. Recognition that the organization's markets and constituencies are culturally diverse is called a(n) ________-and -________ perspective on diversity.

11. Studies have shown that

12. Which of the following are true concerning perceptions in performance appraisals?

13. Kelley hypothesized that people make causal attributions by observing three dimensions of behavior: ___________, __________, and _____________.

14. Self-serving bias implies that people will credit successes to controllable __________ factors and failures to uncontrollable _____________ factors.

15. Affirmative action programs

16. One’s inclination to take more credit for success that for failure is called _____-______ bias.

17. People with disabilities

18. Which of the following are true concerning the experience of the LGBTQ workforce?

19. Which of the following statements about workplace challenges for LGBTQ people are true?

20. The number of race-based _______ cases deemed to have reasonable cause by US EEO commission more than doubled from 1995 to 2015. (one blank/one word)

21. Object recognition is a major function of _____________.

22. Select barriers to successful diversity programs at work.

23. Affirmative action programs have generated many opportunities for ______ and _______.

24. Characteristics that take awhile to emerge during interactions, such as attitudes, opinions and values, are called ________ characteristics. 25. Assigning someone’s behavior to his or her personal characteristics instead of the circumstances is called.

26. Implicit cognition results in

27. Select barriers to implementing successful diversity programs.

28. The fundamental _______ bias leads people to disregard environmental influences on behavior.

29. A cognitive process that enables people to interpret and understand their surroundings is called ___________.

30. Any thoughts or beliefs that are automatically activated from memory without our conscious awareness are examples of _____________.

31. Select the four layers of diversity.

32. Which of the following describe circumstances facing people with disabilities?

33. Programs to help people come back to their careers after taking a break are known as _________.

34. The ________/________ option in Thomas’ framework has the goal to either increase or decrease the number of diverse people at all levels of the firm.

35. The ________ option in Thomas’ framework is based on the action of moving the diverse person off to the side.

36. The _____________ option in Thomas’ framework is based on the belief that good relationships can rise above differences.

37. The __________ option in Thomas’s framework means people refute that differences exist.

38. The __________ option in Thomas’ framework means people are willing to adapt or change their views for the sake of creating positive relationships.

39. The ________ option in Thomas’ framework involves acknowledging differences but not valuing or accepting them.

40. The ________ option in Thomas’ framework means that differences are squelched or discouraged.

41. Managers should remember that ______ biases may lead managers to misinterpret employee behavior and take inappropriate actions.

42. Which of the following are true considering managerial implications of attributional tendencies?

43. Select barriers to implementing successful diversity programs.

44. The statistical measurements of populations and their qualities, such as age, gender, race, and income over time are:

45. Rank the four steps in stereotyping process with the first step at the top.


Practice: Week 2 Knowledge Check

1. True or False. It is always a mistake to use stereotypes.
2. True or False. Perception is influenced by three key components: the characteristics of the perceiver, of the target, and of the situation.
3. True or False. Managers can have a great impact on fixed individual differences.
4. True or False. Prejudice is one of the most common barriers to implementing successful diversity programs.
5. True or False. “Individual differences” is a narrow category only used to describe the “Big Five” personality attributes.
6. True or False. Self-esteem is a broad personality trait composed of self-efficacy, locus of control, and emotional stability.
7. A person who ________ is relatively unconstrained by situational forces and effects environmental change.
8. True or False. Diversity refers to age, gender, and religion, but does not include personality.
9. True or False. In the self-serving bias, employees attribute their success to internal factors and their failures to external factors.
10. Perception is the process of becoming consciously aware of something or someone.
11. The internal dimensions of diversity
12. True or False. In the self-serving bias, employees attribute their success to internal factors and their failures to external factors.
13. True or False. Intelligence cannot be modified or altered.

14. True or False. The potential to learn and use spoken and written languages is known as linguistic intelligence.

15. Which of the following is not one of the basic dimensions of the Big Five personality dimensions?

 

 

 

 

MGT/312T WEEK 3 Leadership, Building Relationships, and Developing Communication Skills
MGT312T WEEK 3 Training and Development Exam
 
MGT/312T WEEK 3 Leadership, Building Relationships, and Developing Communication Skills

MGT/312T Week 3

 

Everything listed for Week 3 is included in purchase!! 

 

1. MGT/312T WK3 Leadership, Building Relationships, and Developing Communication Skills

2. MGT/312T WK3 Summative Assessment: Training and Development Exam

3. BONUS - Practice: Week 3 Knowledge Check

4. BONUS - Apply: Employee Performance and Operations

 

 

MGT/312T Week 3 Leadership, Building Relationships, and Developing Communication Skills (Extra Questions & Answers included)

 

  1. Which type of leadership represents views of leadership not as a property of individuals and their behaviors but as a social phenomenon constructed in interaction?
  2. Which style of leadership theory describes a framework for considering leadership in the context of both bureaucracy and complex adaptive systems?
  3. True or False. Relations-oriented behavior involves providing direction and enforcing performance standards needed to drive production.
  4. True or False. Bass's transactional and transformational leadership theory is one of the most prominent theories in leadership research.
  5. The trait approach focused on all of the following EXCEPT:
  6. Which of the following is a view in which leaders selflessly serve others first?
  7. Which style of leadership enables power sharing with employees by clarifying the significance of the work, providing autonomy, expressing confidence in the employee's capabilities, and removing hindrances to performance?
  8. A focus on power for collective rather than personal benefit is called
  9. True or False. Normative theory is the study of ethical problems and challenges distinctive to and inherent in the processes, practices, and outcomes of leading and following.
  10. Which of the following involves leaders motivating followers to transcend self-interest for the sake of the organization or team?
  11. True or False. Much of the early work on behavioral approaches was centered at two universities and became known as the Yale and Harvard studies.
  12. True or False. The central argument of behavioral leadership theories is that situational factors moderate the association between a manager's leadership style and his or her effectiveness.
  13. True or False. Task structures are systems that adapt and evolve in the process of interacting with dynamic environments.
  14. The type of leadership that is needed when subordinates want emotional, not task support is:
  15. True or False. Research shows that leaders are born not made.
  16. True or False. Supportive Leadership is motivation-focused behavior that builds subordinates' confidence in achieving high standards through a focus on excellence and goal-setting.
  17. True or False. Contingency Approaches state that the relationship between leader behavior and leadership effectiveness depends on the situation.
  18. True or False. Bass's transactional leadership involves leaders motivating followers to transcend self-interest for the sake of the organization or team.
  19. The ethical values, norms, attitudes, feelings and behaviors of employees in an organization are known as:
  20. True or False. Transactional leadership involves inspirational relationships in which both leaders and followers are positively transformed in the process.
  21. Which of the following states that the relationship between leader behavior and leadership effectiveness depends on the situation?
  22. True or False. Task-oriented behavior involves concern for relationships and socioemotional support.
  23. Which type of leadership operates in the interface between the administrative and entrepreneurial systems?
  24. Laissez-faire leadership involves:
  25. Which type of leadership is task-oriented, production-centered behavior that provides clarity and direction for subordinates?
  26. ___________ is/are a special personal quality or attractiveness that enables an individual to influence others.
  27. Active management by exception involves:
  28. True or False. Efficiency is the quality and quantity of work produced.
  29. The type of behavior that involves concern for relationships and socioemotional support is known as __________ behavior.
  30. Charismatic leaders can be most distinguished by their __________ skills.
  31. True or False. In order to find out if a leader has a certain trait you should examine their behaviors.
  32. As a manager, Joanna engages in democratic form of leadership that focuses on consulting with subordinates and taking their suggestions into account before making decisions. Joanna is said to following which of these?
  33. True or False. Heroic leadership views leadership as the result of acts of great leaders who inspire and motivate others to accomplish extraordinary things.
  34. True or False. In complex adaptive systems, coordination and control is centralized and comes from within the system.
  35. True or False. Task-oriented behaviors include maintaining performance standards, assigning tasks, identifying standard procedures, enforcing deadlines, correcting performance problems, and coordinating activities.
  36. ________________ are charismatic leaders with a personalized power orientation.
  37. The extent to which one accepts that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally is called:
  38. True or False. Charisma is a special personal quality or attractiveness that enables an individual to influence others.
  39. _______ systems are systems that adapt and evolve in the process of interacting with dynamic environments.
  40. True or False. Achievement-oriented leadership is based on Milton Friedman's view that the sole purpose of business is to make money.
  41. True or False. Active management by exception involves watching for deviations from rules and standards and taking corrective action.
  42. Whether the amount given back is roughly the same as what was received, in the norm of reciprocity, is known as:
  43. ___________ is the capacity or willingness to follow a leader.
  44. ____________ is exerted by persons appointed or elected to positions of formal authority in organizations.
  45. ____________ refers to actions people take to bestow an identity of a leader or follower onto another person.
  46. True or False. Co-leadership sees leadership as a group phenomenon that is distributed among individuals.
  47. Which of the following refers to actions people take to assert their identity as a leader or follower?
  48. True or False. Follower role orientation refers to the tendency to attribute organizational outcomes both good and bad) to the acts and doings of leaders.
  49. Which of the following reflects the belief that followers should act in ways that are helpful, useful and productive to leadership outcomes?
  50. Of the following, which category is not considered and implicit followership prototype of antiprototype?
  51. Which type of leadership occurs when leadership is divided so that no one person has unilateral power to lead?
  52. ______________ sees leadership as a group phenomenon that is distributed among individuals.
  53. Which of the following helps overcome problems related to the limitations of a single individual and of abuses of power and authority?
  54. True or False. Managers only need to have either position or personal power, but not both.
  55. True or False. Equivalence, in the norm of reciprocity, refers to how quickly the repayment is made.
  56. True or False. Idiosyncrasy credits refer to our ability to violate norms with others based on whether we have enough "credits" to cover the violation.
  57. True or False. Among the strongest findings in leadership research are studies showing that the nature of leader-follower relationships matter.
  58. When leadership is constructed and produced in social and relational interactions among people acting in context it is called:
  59. True or False. Romance of leadership is defined as the beliefs followers hold about the way they should engage and interact with leaders to meet the needs of the work unit.
  60. The extent to which individuals choose to assume leadership training, roles and responsibilities refers to:
  61. True or False. The process of translating an idea or thought into a message consisting of verbal, written, or nonverbal symbols, or some combination of them, is called decoding.
  62. True or False. Communicating with someone through facial expressions, body posture, eye contact, and other physical gestures is referred to as non-audible communication.
  63. True or False. Good organizational behavior stems from communication, whereas bad organizational behavior stems from competition.
  64. The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious in respect to __________ differences.
  65. True or False. Encoding-decoding conduits are the pathways through which messages are transmitted.
  66. True or False. Static is the term used to describe any disturbance that influences the effectiveness of the communication process.
  67. True or False. Encoding communicates how one feels about something another person has done or said.
  68. True or False. Nonverbal communication affects the impressions that people make on others. It also can hold the key to what someone is really thinking or what he/she really means.
  69. True or False. In order for meaning to be assigned to any received message, its contents must be interpreted through encoding.
  70. True or False. Fortunately, the choice of communication channel does not have an impact on the communication process.
  71. True or False. The process of decoding is complicated by many factors, including the knowledge and experience of the receiver and his or her relationship with the sender.
  72. When in doubt regarding the clarity of your written or spoken message, the recommended course of action to follow is:
  73. True or False. The role of the "receiver" in the communication process is to decode the message into a perceived meaning.
  74. True or False. The role of the "receiver" in the communication process is to encode an intended meaning into a message.
  75. True or False. For all practical purposes, the communication process is completed when a message is sent.
  76. True or False. Feedback is the process through which the receiver communicates with the sender by returning another message.
  77. True or False. Unfortunately, in most workplaces, there is too much feedback rather than too little.
  78. True or False. Communication is the process of sending and receiving symbols with attached meanings.
  79. True or False. The key elements in the communication process include a source, who encodes an intended meaning into a message; a receiver, who decodes the message into a perceived meaning; and noise, which is any disruption in the transference of the message.
  80. True or False. Active communication occurs by facial expressions, body position, eye contact, and other physical gestures.
  81. True or False. Interestingly, nonverbal communication can take place through the physical arrangement of space.
  82. True or False. Communication channels are the pathways through which messages are communicated.
  83. True or False. Interestingly, given power that comes with the positions, formal channels of communication do not adhere to the organization's hierarchy of authority.
  84. True or False. Analysis of Hitler and Steve Jobs' speeches shows that they were masters of communicating with noise.
  85. True or False. International business experts advise that one of the best ways to gain understanding of cultural differences is to hire people from different countries.
  86. Which of the following countries is a low-context culture?
  87. True or False. Crossed legs are quite acceptable in the United Kingdom but are rude in Saudi Arabia if the sole of the foot is directed toward someone.
  88. True or False. Because formal channels are recognized as authoritative, it is typical for communication of policies, procedures, and other official announcements to adhere to them.
  89. True or False. The primary disadvantage of grapevines is that they transfer information slowly and fairly inefficiently.
  90. True or False. Furniture placement can provide effective verbal communication with active listening.
  91. True or False. The most common barriers in the workplace include interpersonal issues, location distractions, emotional or semantic barriers, and cultural barriers.
  92. True or False. Information flows in organizations through both formal and informal channels of communication.
  93. __________flows from sender to receiver only, as in the case of a written memo or a voice-mail message.
  94. All of the following are true of the study by Detert and Burris on leadership behaviors EXCEPT:
  95. True or False. The U.S. is a low-context culture where words convey only part of a message, while the rest of the message must be inferred from body language and additional contextual cues.
  96. _________ means asking for additional information.
  97. True or False. Lisa cannot listen objectively to Tom due to issues with lack of trust. Lisa is experiencing an interpersonal barrier to communication.
  98. Which of the following is an individual's perceived competence in interpreting and responding to feedback?
  99. True or False. Physical barriers occur when individuals are not able to objectively listen to the sender due to things such as lack of trust, personality clashes, and a bad reputation.
  100. True or False. The primary advantage of grapevines occurs when they transmit incorrect but timely information.
  101. True or False. Avoidance is a major barrier to openness and honesty in communication.
  102. True or False. Channel richness is the capacity of a communication channel to convey information in an effective manner.
  103. Which of these indicate the capacity of a channel to convey information?
  104. Members of high-context cultures use all of the following to convey their messages EXCEPT:
  105. True or False. Being part of a grapevine can provide a sense of security from "being in the know" and can help fulfill the needs of people involved in them.
  106. True or False. Ethnocentrism is often accompanied by the inclination to try to understand alternative points of view.
  107. A violation of the "boundary" of acceptable behavior in a relationship is called an) __________ violation.
  108. True or False. Fortunately, semantic barriers occur only when people communicate in two different languages.
  109. True or False. Formal channels of communication follow the chain of command established by an organization's hierarchy of authority.
  110. True or False. A grapevine transfers rumors and other unofficial information through networks of friendships and acquaintances.
  111. Which of these transfers information through networks of friendships and acquaintances?
  112. True or False. In general, the richest communication channel is email communication.
  113. True or False. The study of how building design may influence communication and productivity by improving lateral communications is referred to as organizational ecology.
  114. The choice to confront situations rather than remain silent is known as _____.
  115. True or False. Research shows that a key factor that plays into the choice to voice or remain silent is the perceived efficacy of voice.
  116. Feedback _________ is an individual's perceived competence in interpreting and responding to feedback
  117. True or False. To be an effective active listener, research suggests, that people should only pay attention to verbal expressions and ignore nonverbal expressions.
  118. True or False. Upward communication keeps higher organizational levels informed about what lower-level employees are doing and the problems they are having.
  119. True or False. One of the major functions of downward communication is to achieve influence by providing information.
  120. True or False. Jodi is interested in finding the leanest form of communication. She should use face-to-face communication.
  121. True or False. The biggest mistake people make in active listening is jumping to advice too early, or deflecting off their problem and on to your own.
  122. True or False. Inside an organization, employees communicate across departmental levels through parallel communication.
  123. True or False. The flow of messages from lower to higher organizational levels is downward communication.
  124. True or False. Organizations foster voice through location design and policies.
  125. True or False. Listening to another person with the purpose of helping him or her think through a problem they are having is called dynamic listening.
  126. True or False. For upward communication to be effective, people must be willing to listen to other functions and departments from the perspective of serving their needs as "internal customers."
  127. True or False. Leaner channels work well for more routine and straightforward messages, whereas richer channels work well with complex and open-ended messages.
  128. True or False. Upward communication keeps higher organizational levels informed about the organization's strategies and policies.
  129. True or False. To be an effective active listener, a person should listen only for content -- trying to hear exactly what is being said.
  130. True or False. For lateral communication to be effective, people must be willing and able to communicate across departmental or functional boundaries.
  131. True or False. Lateral communication follows the chain of command from top to bottom.
  132. In __________ communication, there is no direct and immediate feedback from the recipient of a message.
  133. True or False. Because of the mass appeal and cost effectiveness, the richest communication channel is a posted notice or bulletin.
  134. Which of these represent the richest channel?
  135. ________ channels help to create open communications in organizations and ensure that the right people are in contact with one another.
  136. A set of tools to approach difficult conversations are known as __________.
  137. Which of these refers to anything that interferes with the effectiveness of communication?
  138. True or False. A reflection is an opening up or revelation to another of something about oneself.
  139. Which of the following represent the two sides of the communication process?
  140. John dislikes his co-worker, Dylan. Dylan must miss the morning staff meeting as he has other work-related responsibilities to complete at this time. It is John's responsibility to fill Dylan in on what happened at the meeting. Many times John decides to leave out critical details or pointers that may help Dylan to be more successful in getting things done. John is engaging in which communication barrier?
  141. All of the following statements about information channels are correct EXCEPT:
  142. __________ communication takes place through facial expressions, body position, eye contact and other physical gestures.
  143. True or False. Feedback-seeking is a person's overall receptivity to feedback.
  144. Because of their efficiency, __________ are frequently used in work settings.
  145. All of the following statements are true with respect to two-way communication EXCEPT:
  146. True or False. When engaging in supportive communication, it is helpful for a person to use absolutes such as, "You never listen to me."
  147. Which of the following is not a type of communication channel?
  148. True or False. Deflecting means paraphrasing back what the other has said.
  149. True or False. Relational maintenance involves actions to return the relationship to a positive state.
  150. __________ assumes the ways of your culture are the only ways of doing things.
  151. __________ occurs when individuals block out information or only hear things that match preconceived notions.
  152. __________ in communication occurs when individuals feel they are being attacked and they need to protect themselves.
  153. ______ communication goes from sender to receiver and back again.
  154. __________ differences in organizations create potential communication barriers between persons of higher and lower ranks.
  155. True or False. A supportive communication principle suggests focus on the support structure in the organization instead of the personality of individuals.
  156. Which of these is NOT an example of a one-way communication?
  157. The art of impression management during interviews requires careful attention to __________.
  158. Research indicates that __________ communication is more accurate and effective than _______ communication.
  159. Potential communication barriers come from all of the following EXCEPT:
  160. All of the following are supportive communication principles EXCEPT:
  161. True or False. In most workplaces, there is too little positive feedback because people fear raising emotions in the other they are not prepared to handle.
  162. __________ communication is more costly and time consuming than __________ communication.
    In comparing two-way communication with one-way communication, research indicates that
    Was the goal or work completed in a timely manner?
  163. Was the goal or work done well?
  164. What is the main problem that HISD officials were aiming to fix?
  165. Which of the following does not represent potential reasons the HISD incentive plan may not be working as originally hoped?
  166. Which of the following elements of SMART goals is absent from the following stated goal that could be made by HISD management?
    Which of the following was the main "perverse incentive" that was a root cause of Wells Fargo employees' unethical behavior?
  167. Which of the following failed to stop the widespread fraud at Wells Fargo?
  168. Which of the following would be an example of an intrinsic reward for Wells Fargo employees who engaged in fraudulent activity?
  169. One possible method Wells Fargo management could use to reduce unethical behavior in the future is coaching. Which of the following would be an example of that?
  170. James is a Wells Fargo employee. His manager saw him parking illegally in a loading zone once, so he assumes James must have engaged in fraudulent account activity. Which of the following perceptual errors did his manager make?
  171. Shawn is required to be in the office Monday through Friday, but would really value the ability to work from home one day a week. Based on Shawn's above-average performance last year, his boss is allowing him to work from home on Fridays. This is an example of which of the following?
  172. Reducing an employee's compensation because of poor performance is known as negative reinforcement.
  173. Melissa is an engineer at Acme Consulting. She used to work from 8:30am to 5:30pm, but her boss told her she could come in at 9am because of her great performance last year. However, this year Melissa is constantly arriving late to work. Her supervisor is looking to utilize extinction to remedy this behavior. Which of the following would be an example of extinction in this situation?
  174. When only some, not all, instances of a target behavior are reinforced, it is called ______ reinforcement.
  175. Ignoring an undesirable behavior until it disappears is known as ________.
  176. Skinner labeled behavior that is learned when one acts on the environment to produce desired consequences ______ behavior.
  177. A customized process between two or more people with the intention of enhancing learning and motivating change is ________.
  178. Feedback is more likely to be acted upon when it is _________ and helps achieve an important goal.
  179. Coaching is a customized process between two or more people with the intention of enhancing learning and motivating ________.
  180. Exit interviews provide:
  181. Feedback is only positive or negative when:
  182. Reinforcement of some, but not all instances of a target behavior is:
  183. The process of strengthening a behavior by removing an unpleasant consequence is ______ reinforcement.
  184. When monitoring performance, it is important to check progress to identify ______ that can be remedied.
  185. The acronym SMART refers to which step in the goal-setting process?
  186. What are results, behaviors, actions, and nonperformance factors examples of?
  187. Reinforcement theory states that you can:
  188. The _________ schedules that produce the strongest behavior and are most resistant to extinction are variable interval and the other is variable ratio.
  189. As a manager, knowing the types of rewards others value most in an organization can help you to
  190. An individualized and customized form of performance management is known as
  191. Skinner concluded that behavior is:
  192. The reinforcement schedules that produce the strongest behavior that is most resistant to extinction include:
  193. The three common sources of feedback include:
  194. When managing others, it is important to know whether an employee prefers _______ or __________ rewards.
  195. Compensation, benefits, and personal growth opportunities are all part of an organization’s:
  196. Which of the following describe when feedback is motivational?
  197. The three common sources of feedback include self, task, and ________.
  198. The primary functions of performance management include:
  199. SMART goals are those that include which of the following characteristics?
  200. Key components such as types of rewards, distribution criteria, and desired outcomes are part of an organization’s ______ system.
  201. The general criteria for distributing rewards in organizations include
  202. The characteristics of effective coaching include:

 

 

 

 

MGT/312T Week 3 Summative Assessment: Training and Development Exam

  1. Matt has high job involvement. Which of the following is most likely to be true of Matt?
  2. Emily is considered to be an excellent production manager. However, she tends to give attention only to those aspects of the organization that affect her own production operation and tends to ignore the concerns of other departments. This scenario exemplifies which of these?
  3. Tonya works at Makers Marketing Inc. Her office tends to be very busy and noisy. As a result, Tonya frequently has to consciously decide what information to pay attention to and what information to ignore. Tonya is using which of these as a mechanism for paying attention to and selecting information?
  4. At ABC Corp., the HR department is conducting a training program on effective communication skills for all employees. As part of the program, they are emphasizing the importance of incongruent body language and its impact on communication. Which of the following is the most common negative impact of incongruent body language during a business meeting?
  5. At GHI Inc., the management team is concerned as they notice individuals with different perspectives and experiences feel excluded and disengaged. What is the most effective strategy for the management team at GHI Inc. to mitigate the negative impact of homophily on business performance?
  6. Jason has been promoted to a new leadership role in his organization. As an official with authority, how can he contribute to improved business performance through his leadership style?
  7. A candidate with an intellectual disability is overlooked by a recruiter even though he possesses skills that are perfect for the job. In this scenario, which perceptual error does the recruiter make?
  8. Mason, the director of engineering at Frost Inc., was very impressed with the fact that Blake, a production engineer, had not missed a single day of work in the past year. Mason rated Blake very high on all dimensions of his performance appraisal based on this one aspect of Blake's performance, disregarding the fact that Blake's performance was poor in two quarters of the year. This error in the performance appraisal process is known as which of these?
  9. Alex, a newly hired manager at ABC Corp., is trying to build relationships with his team members. He is aware that conflicts can arise in the workplace and wants to prevent them from affecting the team's performance. What is the most effective way for Alex to prevent relationship conflict among team members at ABC Corp.?
  10. At DEF Corporation, employees are trained on the importance of the norm of reciprocity in their workplace interactions to help strengthen team dynamics and collaboration. Over the last quarter, product sales have dropped and your boss has asked you, along with a new member that just started at the company last week, to deliver a presentation on the sale trends at the team meeting next week. Overwhelmed with other projects, you did not contribute nearly as much time and work as your teammate, but you are relieved because the presentation still went well as a result of her extra work. Considering the concepts of reciprocity, what is the best way to build this relationship?
  11. Your company, in Virginia, is sending you to their headquarters in Japan to support with training employees on a newly acquired ordering system. Considering Japan's culture and Hofstede's 5 dimensions of national cultural values, which is likely the best training structure to use?
  12. At XYZ Inc., the management team has decided to adopt a distributed leadership approach to improve business performance and decision-making processes. In this type of leadership, responsibilities are shared among multiple individuals rather than being held by a single leader. How will this approach better support the team?
  13. As the team lead for a new project at your company, you are assigning tasks for each of your team members. Janice's problem-solving style aligns mostly to Sensation-Thinking. To maximize Janice's performance, which task should you assign to Janice?
  14. You are a manager at ABC Manufacturing, and you enjoy responsibility and success in your work. You have been newly appointed as the leader of a team with jobs that seem dull and routine. You decide to move quickly to expand these jobs so that members get increased satisfaction from more challenging tasks. Basically, you want them to experience things that you value in work. Instead of designing the team members' jobs to best fit their needs, you plan to design their jobs to best fit yours. Which perception/attribution error are you displaying and how this will likely impact your team?
  15. As an experienced team leader, Nancy uses which of these to think about the appropriate steps involved in running a meeting?
  16. Given that Jason, a new employee at ABC Manufacturing, sees the world as a threatening place, he would be described as which of these?
  17. The __________ traits measure how much an individual experiences emotional distress or displays unacceptable acts.
  18. _____ are simplified views of reality that attempt to explain real-world phenomena.
  19. Rather than assuming that there is one "best" or universal way to manage people in organizations, which approach do researchers use to try to identify how different situations can be best understood and handled?
  20. As a manager, Jermaine defines goals, sets performance objectives, and identifies action steps for accomplishing them. Jermaine is engaged in which management function?
  21. Individuals who use influence to create change that benefits the mission and vision of the organization are called _______  leaders.
  22. Which of the following is an enduring change of behavior that results from experience?
  23. Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT:
  24. Which of these refers to a capacity to get things done due to relationships with other people?
  25. The essential skills of management, according to Robert Katz, can be grouped into which of the following three categories?
  26. The law of __________ says that if someone does something for someone else it will invoke a sense of obligation to return the favor.
  27. As an OB researcher, Samantha focuses on looking in depth at single situations. Samantha is using which of these research methods?
  28. In recent years, the workplace has experienced a shift from a focus on diversity to a focus on ________.
  29. _________ involves individual differences in visible attributes such as race, sex, age, and physical abilities.
  30. The "Big Five" personality dimension of agreeableness refers to which of the following sets of personality traits?
  31. Surface-level traits that reflect the way a person appears to others when interacting in various social settings are called __________ traits.
  32. Individuals that are oriented toward conformity and try to accommodate themselves to other people are __________ individuals.
  33. The __________ traits measure how much an individual experiences emotional distress or display unacceptable acts.
  34. Which type of stress has a positive impact on both attitudes and performance?
  35. Terminal values include all of the following factors EXCEPT:
  36. __________ is the view individuals have of themselves as physical, social, and spiritual or moral beings.
  37. Problem-solving style reflects the way a person goes about _________ and evaluating information in solving problems and making decisions.
  38. Which of these are factors that influence the perceptual process?
  39. According to the work of Albert Bandura, an individual uses modeling or vicarious learning to acquire behavior by
  40. Which conditioning is a form of learning through association that involves the manipulation of stimuli to influence behavior?
  41. The tendency to deny personal responsibility for performance problems but to accept personal responsibility for performance success is known as:
  42. __________ is the withdrawal of negative consequences, which tends to increase the likelihood of repeating the desirable behavior in similar settings.
  43. The stages involved in processing the information that determines a person's perceptions and reactions include all of the following EXCEPT:
  44. If you are a manager and have one extremely exceptional employee, you need to guard against __________ when evaluating the work of your other employees, because you may have the tendency to compare the characteristics of our other employees with those of the exceptional employee.
  45. The application of attribution theory is particularly concerned with whether one's behavior has been __________.
  46. When a mentally challenged candidate is overlooked by a recruiter even though he possesses skills that are perfect for the job, which perceptual distortion is likely to be experienced by the recruiter?
  47. True or False. Simulation techniques are highly effective in training air traffic controllers and pilots.
  48. True or False. Most people have actually been involved in some form of HRD
  49. True or False. The show, tell, do and check training method began in World War I and is still in use today.
  50. True or False. Line authority is given to units that advise and consult line units.
  51. True or False. In the business partner role, the HRD manager works with others to determine how HRD programs will be implemented and evaluated.
  52. True or False. Some people argue that training is often cut to save money is because executives do not see a link between it and the bottom line.
  53. True or False. Increasing diversity in the workplace means racial, ethnic, gender and age diversity.
  54. True or False. Training objectives are normally developed in the needs assessment phase.
  55. HRD - Human Resource Development is best defined as
  56. The two significant historical events that impacted the training of unskilled and semiskilled workers were
  57. Which of the following positions does NOT belong in a large HRD department?
  58. Which of the following is not a typical T & D function?
  59. Strategic management involves all of the following except?
  60. A challenge currently facing the HRD field is
  61. Identifying training needs involves all of the following except?
  62. According to social learning theory, self-efficacy is defined as a person's beliefs about their ability to perform a job.
  63. According to the self-fulfilling prophecy a supervisors expectations of behavior can impact the employee's behavior
  64. In general need theories of motivation focus on a deficiency that energizes behavior
  65. In equity theory employees compare themselves to their goals
  66. Internal forces impacting employee behavior include all of the following except?
  67. The following are factors in the work environment that effect an employee's behavior EXCEPT
  68. Organizational rewards includes
  69. Abilities are
  70. True or False. Learning is defined as a permanent change in behavior, cognition or affect.
  71. True or False. Over-learning - learning something beyond the point of mastery is always a waste of time.
  72. True or False. Gerontology is the study of old age and aging.
  73. True or False. Learning strategies represent the "behavior and thoughts a learner engages during learning."
  74. True or False. Expert performance is being very good at almost everything
  75. True or False.
  76. If a trainee views training as a remedial event they will learn less than if they view it as an opportunity to advance.
  77. Trainability is thought to be influenced by all of the following factors EXCEPT
  78. A student who studied for this exam for two hours a day for four days would most clearly be using (or demonstrating)
  79. For individual trainees a learning curve will be
  80. A learning style
  81. The VARK stands for
  82. Trainability testing is used to determine if the trainees have both the ________ and ________ to learn
  83. True or False. A needs assessment should be the starting point for all HRD programs and is critical to program success
  84. True or False. The organizational climate has little to do with the success of an HRD program
  85. True or False. A job description is a narrative statement of the major activities involved in performing a job and conditions under which these duties are performed
  86. True or False. Immediate supervisors should not be involved in a person analysis
  87. True or False. The ISD approach stands for Institutional Systems Design
  88. True or False. A diagnostic person analysis involves determining the overall success of individual employee performance
  89. True or False. The need for E-learning is always carefully analyzed
  90. A needs assessment is often not conducted for which of the following reasons
  91. Which of the following could be used to conduct an organizational needs analysis
  92. The knowledge, skills, abilities, and other requirements needed to perform a task or job are spelled out in the
  93. The most common source of information for person analysis is
  94. The HRD Advisory committee
  95. In "The Attack on ISD" which charge or complaint WAS raised by some leaders in the HRD leaders against the process or systems model of HRD used in the text
  96. When designing an HRD program it is often more effective to use objectives developed by an outside vendor rather than developing your own objectives
  97. According to the text it is a good idea to decide whether to design or purchase the HRD program before setting the program objectives
  98. Over half of trainers report saving a lot of money by outsourcing their programs
  99. People who really know a subject always make great trainers
  100. Trainers should be very careful when copying material from others so they do not violate copyright laws
  101. According to the text training programs are best conducted on either Monday or Friday
  102. In a training program objective, the level at which behavior is determined to be acceptable is called the
  103. Which of the following is not a quality of a useful training objective
  104. All of the following are advantages of using an outside trainer (e.g., a consultant) EXCEPT
  105. They are committed to the company and its problems in the long run
  106. Assistance with the needs assessment, presenting an off the shelf program they have available
  107. A general lesson plan would include all of the following except
  108. When scheduling an HRD program during work hours trainers should consider which of the following
  109. True or False. Most managers and supervisors are well-trained to deal with serious employee personal problems
  110. True or False. A necessary ingredient for an effective employee counseling program is a clear and well-enforced policy about employee confidentiality?
  111. True or False. Stress is easy to define and identify
  112. True or False. Employee counseling services should always be outsourced to get the best possible program
  113. True or False. EAP's are based on the assumption that work is the cause of an employee's problems
  114. True or False. A HPP is a Health Promotions Program
  115. True or False. Exercise and fitness programs are popular among large employers
  116. True or False. Smokers cost employers over $2,000 per year that non-smoking employees
  117. True or False. Substance abuse, while found in the US population, is not a problem in the workplace, since most abusers do not jobs
  118. True or False. Participation in employee counseling programs should be mandatory if they are to be effective
  119. Employee counseling services began
  120. The typical counseling program begins with
  121. Which of the following statements is true concerning employee assistance programs
  122. Stress on the job is
  123. The benefits of health and wellness programs
  124. A typical employee counseling program includes
  125. What is true about smoking in the US
  126. Potential negative outcomes of employee counseling programs include all of the following except
  127. The ADA permits companies to
  128. Which of the following is not a behavior pattern that may indicate a substance abuse problems
  129. The drug-free workplace act
  130. According to studies
  131. True or False. In the "traditional" employment relationship, employees often felt that had joined the company "family"
  132. True or False. According to Greenhaus et al. (2000), a career is BEST defined as one's work experiences over a lifetime
  133. True or False. Career exploration always includes goal setting
  134. True or False. Career models can focus on the individual, the organization and the team
  135. True or False. Career planning involves becoming aware of one's options, constraints and consequences
  136. True or False. HRD's role in career development is to make a plan for every employee
  137. True or False. According to Levinson 80% of men interviewed has experienced a midcareer period of self-questioning and reevaluation
  138. True or False. The career counseling process can be viewed as having three stages
  139. Which of the following is the BEST example of the "new" employment relationship described in your text
  140. How does one's personal life impact their career choices?
  141. Based on the Greenhaus et al. Model, career establishment occurs at what age
  142. In the team based career development model the team
  143. In career management, which of the following is not one of the manager's roles
  144. A career plateau occurs when
  145. Career enrichment could include all of the following except
  146. True or False. A lot of what we have learned about management came from the 1970s and the world has changed since then
  147. True or False. There has been extensive research into what managers do
  148. True or False. When globalizing organizations 4 categories of managers are needed
  149. True or False. Corporate strategy is not a component considered in needs assessment
  150. True or False. Business degrees are the most popular undergraduate degrees offered in the US
  151. True or False. A potential disadvantage to short courses offered by colleges and universities is a perceived lack of relevance and practical orientation
  152. True or False. Corporate colleges or universities are seldom used in the US
  153. True or False. A transformational leader offers us a vision and inspires us to pursue that vision
  154. True or False. Needs assessment is unimportant in management development programs
  155. The four-dimensional model depicts the managerial role as having all of the following dimensions except
  156. Which of the following is not a guiding principle for making strategic links according to Seibert and colleagues?
  157. The definition of management development contains all of the following except
  158. A business administration degree program does all except
  159. Executive MBA programs normally meet
  160. Hamburger University is
  161. Job experiences can potentially offer us all of the following except
  162. Behavior modeling typically involves five steps. These are
  163. According to your text, which of the following is associated with the integrated competency model of management training?
  164. According to Allred and colleagues, which of the following is not a skill a manager will need in the 21st century?
  165. McCall and colleagues suggest an effective management development system including
  166. Your text made all of the following points concerning management development except:
  167. True or False. Technostructural intervention theory focuses on improving work content, method and flow
  168. True or False. OD generally uses spontaneous (non-planned) interventions to accomplish its goals
  169. True or False. The model of planned changed (by Porras and Silvers) distinguishes two sets of target variables: vision variables and work setting variables
  170. True or False. The change agent needs a broad knowledge of OD theories
  171. True or False. HRD generally has little impact on OD changes
  172. True or False. Survey feedback is simply interviewing a lot of people about their jobs
  173. True or False. Job enlargement moves people into different jobs
  174. True or False. Two types of alternative work schedules are overtime and compressed work week
  175. True or False. An SMT is a self-managed team
  176. True or False. Strategic interventions may be needed when an organization is faced with internal pressures to change and adapt
  177. True or False.
  178. A high performing work system is based on eight core principles
  179. True or False. Organization development appears to be currently in a state of flux
  180. To change an organization and its people can be very difficult. According to the Schein 3-stage model, the first step in this process is to
  181. The role of the change agent is all of the following except
  182. All of the following are limitations of research supporting OD theories except
  183. When individuals perceive a replacement of one paradigm with another that contains new variables, this is known as
  184. The change manager
  185. In OD the action plan specifies
  186. A cooperative agreement between management and a union means that
  187. Team building programs
  188. Group effectiveness depends on all of the following except
  189. Working 4 - 10 hours shifts in a week is an example of
  190. Job enrichment programs involve
  191. Which of the following is TRUE about self-managed teams
  192. A quality circles group consists of
  193. What role should senior management take in a TQM program
  194. Organization culture is
  195. A learning organization focuses on
  196. According to Trahant and Burke the strongest predictor of the success of an Organizational
  197. Transformation intervention is
  198. The future of OD depends on all of the following except
  199. True or False. In 2005 the US foreign born population exceeded 35 million people
  200. True or False. Artifacts and patterns of behavior play an important role in the socialization process
  201. True or False. Females have both moved up in organizations and achieved pay equity with men over the last 20 years
  202. True or False. The two forms of sexual harassment are quid pro quo and hostile work environment
  203. True or False. Equal opportunity is the giving of preferences to women and minorities in employment decisions
  204. True or False. Affirmative action can require organizations to practice preferential recruiting and hiring
  205. True or False. The focus on a managing diversity program is on inclusion
  206. True or False. Interpersonal distances do not vary for people from different cultures
  207. True or False. Over one-half of US companies offer some form of cross-cultural training
  208. True or False. New employees may feel isolated due to their cultural differences
  209. True or False.
  210. Traditionally, a key element in moving into higher level positions in organizations is having a mentor
  211. True or False. When deciding which training method to use it is useful to consider the current level of expertise of the trainees
  212. True or False. In using the discussion method one of the trainer's jobs is to see that only really smart people participate in the discussion
  213. True or False. Classroom training away from the work setting has several advantages
  214. True or False. The lecture method has been widely criticized
  215. Which training method is generally thought to be most effective at developing the analytical and problem-solving skills of the trainees
  216. Which of the following is not true about on-the-job training
  217. When properly done the lecture method can be an effective way to facilitate the transfer of
  218. Which of the following is not a primary category of classroom training
  219. In the discussion method, a question that mirrors what someone has said to make sure that the message was received as intended is a(n) question
  220. Which of the following is not a guideline for an overhead presentation
  221. Which of the following is not a guideline for an effective overhead presentation
  222. Experiential learning is
  223. Which of the following is not a design principle for effective e-learning materials
  224. Blended learning combines what types of instruction
  225. The physical environment of a training program
  226. A trainer needs to do everything except
  227. Which training method is generally thought to be most effective at developing the analytical and problem-solving skills of trainees
  228. True or False. In order to effectively evaluate a training program, the specific objectives of the program must be known
  229. True or False. HRD programs are best evaluated immediately after a training session is completed
  230. True or False. Donald Kirkpatrick described the following four training evaluation criteria: reaction, learning, job behavior, and results
  231. True or False. A dramatic extension beyond Kirkpatrick’s framework includes the idea that constituencies outside the organization should be involved in the evaluation process
  232. True or False. A stakeholder is defined as 'a person or group with an interest in seeing an endeavor succeed but who does not need to support that activity''.
  233. True or False. The reliability of data refers to the consistency of that data
  234. True or False. Confidentiality in training evaluation is not important - the trainees work for the organization already
  235. True or False. Using deception to do evaluation research is a very good idea - it is ethical and moral and employees generally like it when this is used
  236. True or False. A proposed modification to Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model is to add a fifth level beyond results to include ROI
  237. True or False. Collecting pre-training and post-training test data is easier now due to improved technology and the internet
  238. True or False. Developing an explicit evaluation strategy is not necessary since the company already uses a standard method of evaluation personnel
  239. According to Phillips which of the following is NOT a purpose of training evaluation
  240. According to Zenger and Hargis HRD should also be evaluated because
  241. Level 3 of Kirkpatrick’s framework for evaluation is
  242. Which of the following statements provides the best explanation for why training professionals often don't evaluate the results of their training programs
  243. A control group is
  244. Which of the following is NOT an example of an ethical issue in evaluation research
  245. Which of the following is NOT an example of indirect training program costs
  246. Increase use of newer technology has
  247. Role ambiguity means that the employee is unclear about their role in the organization
  248. True or False. Self selection results in people turning down a job
  249. True or False. The encounter stage of socialization begins when you make a formal commitment to join an organization

 

 

 

 

*** BONUS TUTORIALS INCLUDED IN THIS TUTORIAL SET ***

 

Wk 3 - Apply: Employee Performance and Operations

  1. Shawn is required to be in the office Monday through Friday, but would really value the ability to work from home one day a week. Based on Shawn's above-average performance last year, his boss is allowing him to work from home on Fridays. This is an example of which of the following?
  2. Reducing an employee's compensation because of poor performance is known as negative reinforcement.
  3. Monitoring Performance Through Goal Measurement - Performance management doesn't stop once effective goals are set for employees. Monitoring performance is an important next step to monitoring progress toward achievement of those goals-and accurate measurement of progress is critical. This activity is important because managers can use information gathered during performance monitoring to identify problems with and find opportunities to enhance employee performance. What is the key problem in this mini-case?
  4. Melissa is an engineer at Acme Consulting. She used to work from 8:30am to 5:30pm, but her boss told her she could come in at 9am because of her great performance last year. However, this year Melissa is constantly arriving late to work. Her supervisor is looking to utilize extinction to remedy this behavior. Which of the following would be an example of extinction in this situation?
  5. If city officials considered the elimination of overtime as a reward-meaning trash collectors could go home early if they finished their work, yet still get paid for eight hours-then, why did it fail to motivate the desired behaviors?
  6. What is one way city officials could have had more success in achieving their cost-cutting goals?
  7. Based on the case, which of the following is a problem with forced-ranking?
  8. Which step in an effective performance management system would forced-ranking be a part of?
  9. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of forced-ranking?
  10. What do you recommend Adobe do to improve its performance management practices?
  11. Adobe's performance management practices fall under which area of the organizing framework?

 

 

 

 

 

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MGT/312T Week 4

 

Everything listed for Week 4 is included in purchase!! 

 

1. Motivation and Working Well in Teams Quiz

2. MGT/312T Week 4 Discussion Question & Answer (2 DQs included with 2 Answers)

 

 

Motivation and Working Well in Teams

  1. Deanna is a manager of a team at a cyber security company and needs a creative team to address a challenging problem. She knows that several of the employees in her department have been friends for a long time and socialize outside of work. Given their familiarity and relationships, what response best represents Deanna's primary concern for team effectiveness?
  2. Paola is a manager working with her team, and considering Lencioni's five dysfunctions of a team, she is concerned when she observes what behavior by the team members?
  3. A manager is evaluating the performance of his employee, Eric. Eric has met expectations throughout the year, but his performance has been particularly strong in the past few months. The manager is so impressed with Eric's recent performance that he gives him a high rating on his performance evaluation, even though his overall performance throughout the year has been average. Which of the following best describes the manager's behavior?
  4. In a managerial context, what response best distinguishes the leader role from the figurehead role, and why is accountability crucial for effective leadership?
  5. Tony has recently been promoted to the position of manager at a new company. He is excited about his new role but is also a little nervous. Tony is not sure what to expect, and he wants to make a good impression on his new team members and manager. According to status systems, what is the best way to use his status identification as a new manager to his advantage?
  6. In a workplace scenario, when is managerial intervention, which involves making decisions by management without team involvement, most likely to be appropriate?
  7. In a corporate board meeting, a complex financial proposal is being discussed, and there is a noticeable difference in the level of expertise among board members. Some members are financial experts, while others have limited financial knowledge. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates how the concept of institutional conformity could influence the interactions of the board members?
  8. Elsa, a manager at a window factory, is considering implementing an extrinsic reward system for employees. What is a key factor to consider when evaluating the potential effectiveness of extrinsic rewards?
  9. Allen is the manager of his department. He has formed teams of employees around each task in a larger production process to boost efficiency and productivity. Instead of meeting individuals, he meets with each team to provide instructions and feedback. Given this scenario, which response best characterizes his leadership role in the teams?
  10. Chen, a CEO, is considering the design of an incentive program. What response best represents the principle of alignment of incentive programs?
  11. What role does written communication play in the typical manager's career?
  12. Jasmine is a relations-oriented customer service manager at a retail store. One of her customers, Sarah, is very upset because she purchased a defective product from the store. Sarah has already spoken to two of her customer service representatives and is still not satisfied. Given her relations-oriented role, what is the best way for Jasmine to handle Sarah's complaint?
  13. Ashley is using an online form to evaluate an employee's performance, which includes dimensions like quantity of work, quality of work, knowledge of the job, and attendance. Despite its advantages, what is one of the most significant drawbacks associated with this performance evaluation method?
  14. In a large technology company, there is a pressing issue related to cybersecurity that requires a diverse set of skills and expertise to address effectively. The company decides to form a task force to tackle this problem. Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the concept of a task force and its purpose?
  15. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of a primary group within an organization?
  16. A team within the sales department collaborates effectively on projects, but their interactions are
  17. A group of employees from the customer support team has formed a book club, where they
  18. Inspiration: Inspirational appeals are one of the several tactics that might result in this outcome.
  19. Friendship: Personal appeals are often instrumental in achieving this outcome.
  20. Honesty: People who have credibility and are trustworthy are most successful in achieving this outcome.
  21. Inclusion: Individuals who use consultative strategies are more likely to achieve this outcome.
  22. Schmoozing: Ingratiation works and may be characterized this way.
  23. Subtlety: Subtle forms of ingratiation may be characterized this way.
  24. To influence your prospective client, you created a highly professional PowerPoint presentation including many graphs and figures.
  25. Politicians attempt to influence voters in many ways, including trying to appeal to their values.
  26. Your boss periodically asks you and your colleagues for your input on projects for which your department is responsible. However, he always retains decision-making authority and ultimately decides what he thinks is best.
  27. Many business deals are done over dinner, drinks, golf, or other social events.
  28. We often ask favors of our friends.
  29. Employees routinely swap shifts to accommodate their commitments outside of work.
  30. After many unsuccessful attempts to convince your boss to change the vacation policy, you gathered the support of all affected employees, and the case is now being made by the group.
  31. To influence you to work more weekends, your boss subtly reminded you that those who work weekends get promoted.
  32. Employees with the most seniority get the first choice of which holidays to have off from work. Being new, you have last choice.
  33. Jennifer is confronted with low team performance. Which of the following would you recommend to overcome this problem?
  34. Jennifer's team members are producing poor work, but instead of addressing the poor work, she is just fixing it herself. What team-level process from the organizing framework needs to be taking place but is not?
  35. Which of the following quotes from the case best summarizes the main problem it describes at Nike?
  36. How do the percentages of women in VP positions and management positions at Nike compared to the percentage of women in Nike's workforce?
  37. Which of the following hypothetical scenarios, which could occur as a result of Nike's sexual harassment and discrimination problem, represents an act of organizational politics?
  38. Which of the following is not a potential negative consequence to Nike that could result from its sexual harassment issues and is explicitly mentioned in the case?
  39. A _____ is a set of expected behaviors for a particular position.
  40. An attitude, feeling, opinion, or action shared by two or more people that guides behavior is a(n)_______.
  41. Informal groups:
  42. Maintenance roles in a group are those that:
  43. True or false: People watching a parade together form a group under the definition of the term from sociology.
  44. Groups of workers who are given administrative oversight of their task domains are __-____ teams.
  45. A product development team with members from finance, production, marketing, and engineering are part of a _____-_____ team.
  46. When specialists from different areas are put on the same team, it is a _____-_____ team.
  47. Which of the following are part of the criteria for a group?
  48. A virtual team works together over _____ and ______ using electronic media to achieve goals.
  49. A role is a set of expected behaviors for a particular ____, which a _____ role is a set of expected behaviors for members of the group as a whole.
  50. A card club that meets monthly to play and have dinner is an example of a(n) _______.
  51. According to organizational psychologist, E.H. Schein, the size of a group is limited by the possibilities of:
  52. It is more difficult to establish team cohesion, trust, and cooperation in ____ teams.
  53. Individuals may test or rebel against the leader’s policies in Tuckman’s ______ storming stage of group development.
  54. Subgroups may form and procrastination occur during the _____ stage of group development.
  55. The stage of group development that is able to occur after a respected member challenges the group to resolve power struggles to accomplish its goals is the ______ stage.
  56. During which of the stages of Tuckman’s group development process are people likely to test the leader’s policies, form subgroups, and determine how they fit in the group’s power structure?
  57. Plans that outline exactly what the team is to do, goals for the team, and the tasks, responsibilities, and roles of team members are:
  58. According to the Reina Model for rebuilding trust, it is important to discuss feelings and emotions constructively before reframing the _______ and taking ________ for what happened.
  59. The stage of group development characterized by a lot of helping behavior among group members to achieve goals is the _______ stage.
  60. Which of the following are aspects of team composition?
  61. The “we feeling” that binds group members together is group ________.
  62. Formal groups fulfill which three of the following individual functions?
  63. When _______ becomes a shared activity and the group develops its own purpose and mission, the group has become a team.
  64. Recommendations for best practices for virtual teams include:
  65. In Tuckman’s five-stage model of group development, team effectiveness is at its peak in which stage?
  66. Formal groups fulfill which two of the following organizational functions?
  67. Formal groups fulfill both ______ and ______ functions in organizations.
  68. Job design terms that in individuals ______________ for themselves involving schedule flexibility, career development, or other adjustments are known as Idiosyncratic deals.
  69. Psychologist J. Stacy Adams first applied __________ theory in the workplace.
  70. Which of the following are content theories of motivation?
  71. Maslow's need hierarchy is an example of a(n) __________ theory of motivation.
  72. Which theories focus especially on developing an environment that fosters long -term commitment and intrinsic motivation?
  73. According to Maslow’s needs hierarchy theory, managers should focus on motivating employees with
  74. Maslow's needs hierarchy theory would predict that once the need for love is satisfied, the need for _______ will emerge as the most powerful.
  75. Self-determination theory is based on research that shows intrinsic motivation:
  76. Teams composed of specialists from different areas are called virtual teams.
  77. Assigning a particular person to fill the role of critic is known as angel’s advocacy.
  78. Harmonizer is a maintenance role in groups
  79. The ______ is the person who records and talks about group dynamics and processes.
  80. A group that gets together because of a common interest is an informal group.
  81. _______ might be any attempt to control or manipulate the images related to a person, organization, or idea.
  82. Groups usually underperform the average of their individual member
  83. A _______ is a set of expected behaviors for members of the group as a whole.
  84. Coalition tactics are considered one of the “hard” influence tactics.
  85. Teamwork competencies include constructively interacting with other team members and expecting quality work from others on the team.
  86. ______ teams are composed of specialists from different areas.
  87. A coalition is an informal group bound together by the active pursuit of a single issue.
  88. What is the main issue on this Google case?
  89. In order for Google to implement its findings from Project Aristotle, and instill the norms of high-performing teams, it should promote which of the following?
  90. Google discovered that all high-functioning teams allowed members to speak in roughly the same proportion. Which maintenance role would be responsible for encouraging group members to participate in discussions?
  91. Which of the “3 C’s of Effective Teams” did Google find to be the least important?
  92. The question that asks "How much do I value the rewards I will receive?" represents which element of Vroom's expectancy theory?
  93. According to the National Labor Relations Act, companies are not allowed to prevent Which category of employees from discussing their compensation?
  94. McClelland's theory states that employees are motivated by acquired needs that include the need for
  95. McClelland's power need has two sides. The need for ___________ power refers to the desire to manipulate and control others for self-gratification. The need for ____________ power refers to the desire to organize others to achieve organizational goals.
  96. Job design terms that individuals negotiate for themselves involving schedule flexibility, career development, or other adjustments are known as _____________ deals
  97. The theories that focus on the process by which Internal and situational factors Influence employee motivation are known as:
  98. Herzberg proposed that individuals will experience the absence of job dissatisfaction when they have no grievances about ________________ factors.
  99. The title of D0L119las McGregor's book, which formulated two contrasting views of human nature is:
  100. Valence, as used in Vroom's expectancy theory refers to the
  101. In Herzberg's theory, the absence of grievances about hygiene factors:
  102. The approach to job design in which individuals make physical and cognitive changes in the task or relational boundaries of their work is known as _______________.
  103. According to equity theory, people compare:
  104. The elements of equity theory include:
  105. The activities that involve alteration of specific jobs or sets of Interdependent jobs to improve employee experience and motivation are known as job design.
  106. Douglas McGregor called managers' pessimistic assumptions toward employees:
  107. The goals of the bottom-up form of job design known as idiosyncratic deals include improving __________ motivation and productivity through individual arrangement such as scheduling flexibility.
  108. The National Labor Relations Act supports the right of certain employees to discuss compensation in which of the following situations?
  109. Locke and Latham's research on goal setting identified four motivational mechanisms among which are that goals:
  110. The job design method that offers an employee the oppo opportunity to experience achievement, recognition, and stimulating work through vertical loading Is job ________,
  111. True or false: McClelland 's acquired needs theory states that everyone has an equal balance of affiliation, power, and achievement needs.
  112. Job crafting is the
  113. A sense of accomplishment after learning a new skill is a form of__________ motivation.
  114. According to Maslow's needs hierarchy theory, managers should focus on motivating employees with:
  115. Job enlargement is also known as __________ loading the job.
  116. The general categories of motivation theories include:
  117. Goals lead to higher performance when ______ and __________ are used to stay focused and committed to a specific goal.
  118. According to equity theory, people compare:
  119. Needs are defined as physiological or psychological states that
  120. Physiological or psychological deficiencies that arouse behavior are known as _____.
  121. The question "What intrinsic and extrinsic rewards will I receive if I achieve my desired level of performance?", represents which element of Vroom 's expectancy theory?
  122. Feelings of inequity are based on whether you perceive that the outputs you, compensate for your collective ________
  123. What are some of the factors that research has shown to affect expectancy in Vroom's model of motivation?
  124. Which of the following paraphrases comparisons as used in equity theory?
  125. Managers should design jobs that fulfill ________level needs to create committed and motivated employees
  126. McGregor's Theory ______ is a pessimistic view of employees that includes the need to motivate them with carrots and sticks.
  127. Equity theory uses a comparison of the ratio of __________ to ______________.
  128. Herzberg's theory classified company administration, salary, and working conditions as __________ factors.
  129. The personal factors that moderate the effectiveness of the core job characteristics include:
  130. Among the lessons to be learned from equity and justice theories are:
  131. McGregor's Theory Y is a more positive set of assumptions managers have about employees including that they
  132. Locke and Latham's findings about goal setting theory Include that:
  133. Altering specific jobs to improve employee experience and productivity is job ________.
  134. Self-determination theory assumes that three innate needs, ___________, autonomy, and relatedness drive our behavior
  135. Education, skills, creativity, experience, and personal appearance can all be perceived as _________ in Adam's equity Theory
  136. The form of organizational Justice that reflects the perceived fairness of how rewards are allocated is:
  137. According to research on the elements of organizational justice, which two of them relate strongly to desired outcomes?
  138. The form of organizational Justice that reflects whether people are told the truth and treated with respect is:
  139. Vroom's expectancy theory requires that all three of the elements must be high for _____________ to be high.
  140. Although not supported by research, Herzberg's two-factor theory is useful because:
  141. Which of the following are true of McClelland's view of power need?
  142. Among the content theories of motivation are:
  143. Face-to-face interactions early in the virtual team development process build credibility, _____, and understanding, and reduce _________, making subsequent virtual interactions more efficient and effective.
  144. A(n) ______ is an attitude, opinion, feeling, or action shared by two or more people that guides behavior.
  145. Collaboration includes which of the following aspects?
  146. A group’s _______ roles enable it to pursue its purpose, while its ________ roles supports its interpersonal relationships.
  147. Team performance strategies include:
  148. The characteristics of a team are that:
  149. Characteristics of the performing stage in Tuckman’s model of group development include:
  150. Which of the following characterize the adjourning stage in Tuckman’s model of group development?
  151. Team ________ describes the collection of jobs, personalities, skills, experience, and knowledge of team members.
  152. The task roles that facilitate a group’s work include:
  153. Which of the following are examples of the overlap between formal and informal groups?

 

MGT/312T Week 4 Discussion Question & Answer

 

Our personality traits—behaviors and characteristics that reflect our emotions and thoughts shape who we are as individuals and how we interact with others in our work and team environments.
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

  • What are the personality factors that you think are important to be a successful team member of (1) a traditional work team, (2) a self-managed team, and (3) a virtual team?
  • What are some examples of individual differences that are valued among members of an effective team?
  • Why do you think team structure matters when it comes to working effectively as a team member?

 

Describe the personality factors and other individual differences that you think are important to be a successful team member of

(1) a traditional work team;

(2) a self-managed team, and

(3) a virtual team.

 

 

 

 

MGT/312T Week 5

 

Everything listed for Week 5 is included in purchase!! 

 

1. Managing Power, Conflict, Negotiation, and Decision Making
2. Summative Assessment: Organizational Culture Exam

3. MGT./312T Week 5 Discussion Question & Answer

 

 

MGT/312T Week 5: Managing Power, Conflict, Negotiation, and Decision Making

  1. Employees with the most seniority get the first choice of which holidays to have off from work. Being new, you have last choice.
  2. After many unsuccessful attempts to convince your boss to change the vacation policy, you gathered the support of all affected employees, and the case is now being made by the group.
  3. One of the possible causes of incivility in the workplace is autocratic leadership.
  4. _______ are shared perceptions among members of a team about the intensity of disagreement over either tasks or relationships.
  5. Conflict occurs when one party perceives that its interest are being opposed or negatively affected by another party.
  6. _________ conflict is defined as interpersonal opposition based on individual dislike or disagreement.
  7. A distributive negotiation usually involves a single issue in which one person gains at the expense of another
  8. To influence you to work more weekends, your boss subtly reminded you that those who work weekends get promoted.
  9. The three blaming styles researchers found in people from a large variety of industries include
  10. Research has identified useful advice on building support for your ideas that include:
  11. When working in a virtual environment how can people reduce ambiguity?
  12. The way to increase your own influence includes:
  13. Why is it important to assign blame correctly?
  14. Recall that favorable upward impression management tactics include which of the following?
  15. Which of the following are pitfalls to avoid when thinking about empowerment?
  16. Elements of structural empowerment that are inputs to psychological empowerment include:
  17. The base of power that result in compliance include:
  18. Commitment is superior to ________ because it is driven by intrinsic motivation and requires less supervision.
  19. The management practice that enhances employee performance, well-being, and positive attitudes is:
  20. Why is it a good idea to set a meeting time limit at 45 minutes?
  21. The main ways that people react when others try to manage or influence them are:
  22. Intentional acts of influence to enhance or protect the self-interest of individuals or groups that are not endorsed or aligned with those of the organization are known as organizational ___________.
  23. The ability to marshal human, informational, and other resources to get something done is:
  24. Which of the following describes networks?
  25. The transfer of authority and responsibilities from management to employees is called structural ________.
  26. Any attempt to control or manipulate the images related to a person, organization, or idea is ___________.
  27. When one’s personal characteristics and social relationships become the reason for compliance, the base of influence is:
  28. Which of the following characteristics are reflective of a coalition?
  29. The management practice that enhances employee performance, well-being, and positive attitude is __________.
  30. The critical aspect or organizational politics that distinguishes them from other forms of influence is that they:
  31. The forms of power associated with one’s job or position in an organization are referred to as position power and include:
  32. The forms of power you possess independent of your job or position in an organization include:
  33. Managers who obtain compliance primarily because of their formal authority to make decisions use __________.
  34. Having valued knowledge or information needed by others is _____ power.
  35. Position power, which includes legitimate, reward, and coercive power, is power that is connected with what?
  36. Hard influence tactics include:
  37. The transfer of authority and responsibilities from management to employees is called structural _______.
  38. _______ might be any attempt to control or manipulate the images related to a person, organization, or idea.
  39. ______ teams are composed of specialists from different areas.
  40. True or False. Dysfunctional conflict threatens an organization’s interests.
  41. True or False. Coalition tactics are considered one of the “hard” influence tactics.
  42. What are ways that conflict can manifest itself in a work environment?
  43. True or false: When a worker incorrectly believes that a situation is unfair, a conflict does not take place.
  44. Which of the following are characteristic of low intensity conflict in the workplace?
  45. Functional conflict is also referred to as ______ or cooperative conflict.
  46. Which of the following situations cause conflict in the workplace?
  47. What are some of the undesirable consequences of conflict at work?
  48. What is the energy created by the perceived gap between what individuals or groups want and what they are experiencing?
  49. Why should conflict not be avoided?
  50. What have organizational behavior experts came to understand about conflict?
  51. Conflict management can be viewed as an opportunity to produce which positive outcomes?
  52. Which of the following are characteristics of functional conflict?
  53. Interpersonal opposition based on personal dislike or disagreement is a(n) _______  ______.
  54. What happens when conflict is allowed to continue in the workplace?
  55. Which of the following are approaches to resolving intergroup conflict?
  56. Among the characteristics of escalating conflict are
  57. When we ignore conflict, it is likely to:
  58. An opportunity to review and realign goals to serve the parties involved is a positive outcome of
  59. What is the result when the demands from work and family domains are mutually incompatible?
  60. True or false: Personality conflicts cannot be avoided in life or the workplace.
  61. One of the methods used to solve conflicts among groups is called the contact ______ .
  62. Incivility is any form of socially harmful behavior and it includes such actions as:
  63. Which of the following are characteristics of escalating conflicts?
  64. Assigning someone in an organization or group the role of critic is known as ______ _______ .
  65. Avoiding conflict is desirable when it does which of the following?
  66. What does a manager who must skip a long-scheduled family picnic in order to attend a special meeting at work experience?
  67. What method of dispute resolution is less expensive and more constructive than traditional approaches?
  68. Interpersonal opposition based on personal disagreement is a(n):
  69. Which of the following are examples of negotiations that an employee may make with an employer?
  70. Incivility is any form of socially harmful behavior that includes such actions as:
  71. A creative win-win approach that seeks mutual gain for all parties is ______ negotiation.
  72. Which of the programmed conflict techniques assigns someone in an organization or group to identify potential issues or challenges with a proposed process?
  73. Taking a break is a good way to regroup and recover your ______ in a negotiation.
  74. When should you avoid conflict?
  75. What method of handling conflict uses an independent third party and avoids the costs of litigation and unilateral decision making?
  76. Eliminating some of the opponent's alternatives, blaming the opponent for his own actions, and using personally abrasive statements are all part of the unethical negotiating practice known as:
  77. Decision making that involves at least two parties with distinct preferences and give and take between them is ______.
  78. What should you do to manage conflict successfully?
  79. The fixed pie approach in which one person wins at the expense of the other is:
  80. In order to be successful at managing conflict, what techniques should managers utilize?
  81. Realizing which emotions will best suit your objectives and being mindful of them during negotiation is _____.
  82. The failure to correct misperceptions or conceal the negotiator's own position or circumstance such as a conflict of interest is ______ .
  83. Which of the following are reasons one should avoid dysfunctional conflict? (Check all that apply.)
  84. What is the best way for managers to prevent or deal with intergroup conflicts?
  85. Identifying ahead of time what can throw you off balance in a negotiation is part of:
  86. Assigning a particular person to fill the role of critic is known as angel’s advocacy
  87. Interpersonal opposition based on personal dislike or disagreement is a(n) _____________.
  88. Work-family conflict can be _______ if employers have a family-supportive philosophy.
  89. Conflict that offers different opinions outside of managers’ personal feelings is:
  90. A trained, neutral third party actively guides the disputing parties to a non-binding resolution in the alternative dispute resolution method known as:
  91. It is important to have a supportive supervisor when flextime is desired for which of the following reasons?
  92. Bullying differs from other forms of incivility because it:
  93. Which of the following are considered part of flextime?
  94. Eliminating specific negative interactions such as name calling is a method of conflict _________.
  95. Members’ interactions aimed at working through task and interpersonal disagreements are conflict ______.
  96. Which of the following are characteristics of functional conflict?
  97. A _______ occurs when a group perceives that its interests are being disputed by another.
  98. Conflict resolutions that build stronger relationships are likely to increase ____, so that the parties will keep the agreement.
  99. Incivility is any form of socially harmful behavior that includes such actions as:
  100. Members’ interactions aimed at working through task and interpersonal disagreements are conflict ________.
  101. True or false: Personality conflicts cannot be avoided in life or the workplace.
  102. The advantages of the dialectic method are that it:
  103. What are some of the consequences of conflict at work?
  104. Which of the following are characteristic of low intensity conflict in the workplace?
  105. True or false: Whether your own supervisor supports the idea or flextime is not important; as long as there is a company policy that does support it, employees will utilize it.
  106. Company policies that enable employees to work outside of traditional 9-5 schedule are referred to _______.
  107. True or False. Resolving the issues of internal integration helps individuals develop a shared identity and a collective commitment.
  108. __________ innovation is the introduction of new goods or services to better meet customer needs, whereas __________ innovation is the introduction into operations of new and better ways of doing things.
  109. Which of the following deals with the creation of a collective identity and with finding ways of working and living together?
  110. Often the management philosophy at the top is too_____.
  111. Which of the following represent an organization's intended contributions to the broader society?
  112. A new study has indicated that __________ rather than national policy makes the biggest difference with radical product innovation.
  113. True or False. A narrowly diverse culture is always desirable in organizations.
  114. True or False. The process of external adaptation often begins with the establishment of a unique identity; that is, each collection of individuals and each subculture within the organization develops some type of unique definition of itself.
  115. At IBM, the __________ culture would include the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm.
  116. True or False. Mission statements define the type of business an organization is in.
  117. __________ deals with questions such as: What is our unique identity? How do we view the world? Who is a member? How do we allocate power, status, and authority? How do we communicate? What is the basis for friendship?
  118. True or False. Unfortunately, given its origin from the founders' values, managers cannot modify the visible aspects of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.
  119. True or False. Rites are standardized and recurring activities used at special times to influence the behaviors and understanding of organizational members; rituals are systems of rites.
  120. In a business setting, a firm's system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within the company and guides the behavior of its members is called its __________.
  121. True or False. Three important aspects of working together, in the context of internal integration, are: a) deciding who is a member and who is not; b) developing a formal agreement that specifies acceptable and unacceptable behavior; and c) getting friends and enemies to collaborate with one another.
  122. __________ are groups of individuals with a pattern of values and philosophy that outwardly reject those of the larger organization or social system.
  123. True or False. Refining an existing product to make it more saleable in a new market is an example of exploration.
  124. Highly innovative organizations share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
  125. True or False. Shared values help turn routine activities into valuable and important actions.
  126. True or False. As the diversity of opinion, values and meaning in an organization narrows, it becomes much less vulnerable to external change and more able to capitalize on external opportunities.
  127. The issues concerned with __________ are tasks to be accomplished, methods used to achieve the goals, and methods of coping with success and failure.
  128. True or False. Research shows that most organizations originate in several national cultures and incorporate very little features from these host cultures even when they expand internationally.
  129. True or False. A strong culture can be detrimental if it reinforces a broad and pluralistic view of the organization and its environment.
  130. Often, the language of a subculture, and its rituals and rites, emerge from the group as a form of __________.
  131. In many larger U.S. based firms the __________ matches the overall strategy of the firm and reinforces the __________ emerging from day-to-day activities.
  132. True or False. The best organizations don't stagnate; they innovate; they value and expect innovation, and it becomes a normal part of everyday operations.
  133. Each group of individuals in an organization tends to do all of the following EXCEPT:
  134. True or False. Output goals are concerned with the conditions within the organization that are expected to increase the organization's survival?
  135. True or False. Six team processes are particularly important for innovative success: 1) vision, 2) support for innovation, 3) task orientation, 4) cohesion, 5) internal communications, and 6) external communications.
  136. True or False. A number of studies suggest that the key difficulty with product development is the integration across all of the units needed to move from the idea stage to final implementation.
  137. True or False. Some of the key questions regarding external adaptation are: How do we allocate power, status, and authority? How do we communicate? What is the basis for competition?
  138. True or False. With the size advantage, larger firms often have a single dominant culture with a universal set of shared actions, values, and beliefs.
  139. True or False. By linking values and actions, the organization taps into some of the strongest and deepest realms of the individual.
  140. Organizational __________ often specify/ies when various types of actions are appropriate and where individual members stand in the social system.
  141. The first step in the typical process of organizational innovation is __________.
  142. True or False. A common myth in organizations is the denial of trade-offs.
  143. The innovation process is not complete until
  144. __________ represent an organization's intended contributions to the broader society?
  145. Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree with them, all members will know they are important.
  146. As the diversity of opinion, values and meaning in an organization narrows, it becomes much _____ vulnerable to external change and ______ able to capitalize on external opportunities.
  147. To work together effectively, individuals need to do all of the following EXCEPT:
  148. Which step in the innovation process focuses on identifying an idea's anticipated costs and benefits?
  149. The means by which creative ideas find their way into everyday practice is called __________.
  150. Managers of an acquired firm may hold values and assumptions that are quite inconsistent with those of the acquiring firm - thereby creating an __________.
  151. Tony is a manager at Tone Corporation. As a manager he can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.
  152. The introduction of new and better work methods and operations are the result of __________.
  153. Managers should consider doing all of the following to develop a strong culture for a unit EXCEPT:


 

 

 

MGT/312T Week 5: Summative Assessment: Organizational Culture Exam

  1. The process of forming a11d maintaining an Intensive and lasting developmental relationship between a variety of developers and a Junior person is called
  2. Select the mechanisms for changing organizational culture.
  3. The second level of organizational culture is espoused ______.
  4. The values and norms that actually are exhibited or converted into employees behavior are called _____ values
  5. The explicitly stated values and norms that are preferred by an organization are called
  6. Select all that can be impacted by organizational culture.
  7. The competing _____ framework was first developed by researchers trying to classify different ways to assess organizational effectiveness.
  8. Which of the following are characteristic of basic underlying assumptions?
  9. The values and norms that actually are exhibited or converted into employee behavior are called _______ values.
  10. Select the psychosocial functions of mentoring.
  11. Which of the following are included in the four phases of mentoring
  12. When employees understand why the firm does what it does and how it intends to accomplish its long term goals, the culture is said to be helping members
  13. Select the statements that are true regarding culture and change.
  14. Which of the following is an example of social facilitation?
  15. Select the mechanisms for changing organizational culture.
  16. Select the mechanisms for changing organizational culture.
  17. As a team gets larger, which of the following things tend to happen? Select all that apply.
  18. William works for UPS and is required to wear a brown uniform. The corporate uniforms worn by UPS delivery personnel are examples of __________.
  19. At the deepest level of cultural analysis are __________, or the taken-for-granted truths that collections of corporate members share as a result of their joint experience.
  20. Select implications of social networking systems
  21. Select career functions of mentoring.
  22. What is a key risk of neglecting to integrate cultures when companies merge?
  23. Select the four functions of organizational culture
  24. Select the important characteristics or organizational culture
  25. Espoused values represent aspirations that are _______ communicated to employees.
  26. Organizational values that have become so taken for granted over time that they become assumptions that guide organizational behavior are called:
  27. Companies with a(n) _________ culture have a strong external focus and value stability and control.
  28. Companies with a(n) __________ culture have an internal focus and value flexibility rather than stability and control.
  29. The set of implicit assumptions that a group holds and that determines how it perceives, thinks about, and reacts to its various environments is called
  30. During the _______ phase of the three phase socialization process, employees come to learn what the organization is really like.
  31. Two organizational cultures with opposing core values are the _____ culture with emphasis on internal focus and flexibility and the ______ culture which emphasizes and external focus with structure and control
  32. The _____ and _____ phase of the organizational socialization process requires employees to master important tasks and roles and to adjust their work group’s value and norms.
  33. Select the drivers or organizational culture
  34. Which of the following are examples of organizational systems being used for culture change?
  35. Which of the following can be used to send a message about organizational culture using physical space?
  36. Which of the following best reflect companies with a hierarchy culture?
  37. What kinds of emotions tend to travel faster and farther within an organization?
  38. Which of the following often determine the development of subcultures?
  39. The set of implicit assumptions that a group holds and that determines how it perceives, thinks about and reacts to its various environments is called organizations _________.;
  40. The idea that culture facilitates collective _____ is exemplified when Southwest Airlines employees all deliver customer service with warmth, friendliness, and individual pride.
  41. Which of the following can be a good strategy for improving your level of fit? Select all that apply.
  42. Culture provides employees with an organizational _________.
  43. A firm with a(n) ________ culture has an internal focus, which produces a more formalized and structured work environment and values stability and control over flexibility.
  44. The competing values framework teaches us that companies with a _______ culture tend to have more positive organizational outcomes.
  45. Of the following, which best represent rites and rituals?
  46. Organizational ______ influences the type of organizational structure adopted by a company.
  47. The phrase of organizational socialization that occurs before an individual actuall6y joins an organization is ______ socialization.
  48. What type of stability is summarized as the extent to which change and conflict are effectively managed as well as the extent to which the work environment is perceived as reinforcing and positive?
  49. Ralph makes it a point to always offer help to his team members in technical areas in which he is skilled and knowledgeable. His team trusts his judgment and together they are one of the most productive units in the company. What type of power does Ralph exert?
  50. Abby offers pay raises, bonuses, special assignments, and compliments as incentives to her subordinates. Which power does she exert in the given situation?
  51. Samantha stated that she does not like her coworker, Mary. Samantha said, "Mary always rubs me the wrong way." What type of conflict is Samantha experiencing with Mary?
  52. During a conflict situation, Kyle is cooperative but unassertive with his employees. He tries to smooth over their differences, but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Which type of conflict management style is Kyle using?
  53. Ravi works as a social worker at a local hospital. He loves his job and derives great satisfaction from feeling as though he has helped others and made a difference in the community. Ravi is driven by which of these?
  54. Mary is able to call on her networks both inside and outside the organization for support in getting things done and in meeting her goals. Which of the following powers does Mary possess?
  55. When Kenyatta, a manager in a department store, tells her staff to do something and states that she is the boss and therefore everyone must do as asked, she is trying to use which of these to influence the staff's behavior?
  56. Before a client visit, a manager holds a meeting with his subordinates to get their input and consensus on what they should talk about with the clients and how the team can get more business from them. Which type of decision method is this an example of?
  57. Stella, a librarian, likes to plan interactive workshops for the staff in her library. The workshops are aimed at developing team spirit and a sense of belonging among the members. According to Lawrence and Nohria's model of motivation, which of the following emotional drives most likely motivates Stella?
  58. An executive makes salary increase recommendations for key personnel by simply adjusting their current base salaries by a percentage amount. This is an example of which heuristic?
  59. When Kris rates Jamie on several different dimensions and gives a similar rating for each dimension, even though Jamie's performance declined in two areas, which of these errors has occurred?
  60. Manny has always been driven by the need to work more efficiently, solve problems, and master complex tasks. According to David McClelland's manifest needs theory, Manny is most likely driven by a need for which of these?
  61. In a department meeting, Jamira challenges her manager, Shivana, to rethink the decision to close two major client accounts. Aimed at being constructive, Jamira offers her rationale and some alternative strategic direction options. Which resistance strategy is Jamira engaging in? Based on this strategy, how is her manager likely to rate her on a future performance review?
  62. Interpersonal opposition based on personal dislike or disagreement is a(n) _________.
  63. Work-family conflict can be _____ if employers have a family-supportive philosophy
  64. Conflict that offers different opinions outside of manager’s personal feelings is:
  65. party actively guides the disputing parties to a non-binding resolution in the alternative dispute resolution method know as:
  66. It is important to have a supportive supervisor when flextime is desired for which of the following reasons?
  67. Bullying differs from other forms of incivility because it:
  68. In the encounter phase of organizational socialization
  69. What goals are concerned with the conditions within the organization that are expected to increase the organization's survival?
  70. A firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societal based subcultures into the fabric of the organization is called an):
  71. In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the first level concerns __________, or "the way we do things around here."
  72. Societal cultures may actually be __________ into organizations.
  73. True or False. One of the difficulties associated with organizations importing and accepting subcultural groupings from the larger society is that the firm may encounter extreme difficulty in coping with broader cultural changes.
  74. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in Taylor Cox's five-step program for developing the multicultural organization?
  75. An __________ is a commonly held cause-effect relationship or assertion that cannot be supported empirically.
  76. True or False. Three important aspects of external adaptation are: a) separating more important from less important external forces,b) developing ways to measure accomplishments, andc) creating explanations for why goals are not always met.
  77. To many researchers and managers, shared common values lie at the heart of organizational __________.
  78. Isolating __________ is often extremely difficult, but doing so helps explain why culture invades every aspect of organizational life.
  79. Which of these often begins with the establishment of a unique identity; that is, each collection of individuals and each subculture within the organization develops some type of unique definition of itself?
  80. True or False. Most large organizations contain several subcultures as well as one or more countercultures.
  81. A firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societal-based subcultures into the fabric of the organization is known as an_________ organization.
  82. __________ is a condition where dominant cultural patterns are inconsistent with new emerging innovations.
  83. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate with respect to organizational myths?
  84. True or False. Cultural rules and roles are part of the operational controls of the organization and emerge from its strategic planning.
  85. The system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within an organization and guides the behavior of its members is known as __________.
  86. Which step in the innovation process focuses on creating an idea through spontaneous creativity, ingenuity, and information processing?
  87. __________ are groups of individuals with a unique pattern of values and a philosophy that is not consistent with the organization's dominant values and philosophy.
  88. __________ are embellished heroic accounts of accomplishments, especially regarding the founding of an organization.
  89. At ExxonMobil, "what precisely needs to be accomplished, and how can it be done?" is a cultural question pertaining to the survival issue of __________.
  90. As a manager, Jason is interested in developing a shared identity and a collective commitment in his organization. Jason should focus on resolving the issues of __________.
  91. Systems of rites are called __________.
  92. It is common for Japanese workers and managers to start their workdays together with group exercises and singing of the "company song." Together, the exercises and songs form a __________.
  93. True or False. Sagas are important because they are used to tell new members the real mission of the organization, how the organization operates, and how individuals can fit into the company.
  94. True or False. Unfortunately, often the management philosophy at the top is too wide.
  95. True or False. Some of the key questions regarding internal integration are: What do we do if specific targets are not met? How do we tell others how good we are? When do we quit?
  96. True or False. The system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within an organization and guides the behavior of its members is called organizational culture.
  97. __________ are embellished heroic accounts of the story of the founding of an organization that are found at the deepest layer of cultural analysis.
  98. __________ deals with the creation of a collective identity and with finding ways of working and living together.
  99. __________ set the tone for a culture and for cultural change.
  100. _________ is a condition where dominant cultural patterns are inconsistent with new emerging innovations.
  101. All of the following are levels of analysis in studying organizational culture EXCEPT:
  102. The five-step program for developing the multicultural organization was developed by __________.
  103. Refining an existing product to make it more saleable in a new market is an example of __________.
  104. Organizations with __________ possess a broadly and deeply shared value system that can provide a strong corporate identity, enhance collective commitment, provide a stable social system, and reduce the need for formal and bureaucratic controls.
  105. True or False. Rituals are embellished heroic accounts of the story of the founding of an organization.
  106. True or False. Internal integration deals with the creation of a collective identity and with finding ways of matching methods of working and living together.
  107. The corporate uniform worn by UPS delivery people is an example of an __________.
  108. The "Miss America" type ceremonies of Mary Kay used to spotlight positive work achievements are examples of __________.
  109. True or False. The observable culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within the firm.
  110. True or False. In step one of Taylor Cox's five-step program for developing the multicultural organization, the organization should develop pluralism with the objective of multi-based socialization.
  111. Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are
  112. True or False. The term shared in cultural analysis implies that the group is a whole.
  113. True or False. Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are: observable culture, shared values, and common cultural assumptions.
  114. If rule changing and rule following are not properly balanced, there is a danger of reinforcing __________.
  115. What serves to transmit cultural meaning?
  116. ________ are groups of individuals with a unique pattern of values and philosophy that is consistent with the organization's dominant values and philosophy.
  117. "How do members resolve the daily problems associated with living and working together?" is a cultural question pertaining to the survival issue of __________.
  118. True or False. The corporate uniforms worn by UPS and Federal Express delivery personnel are examples of cultural symbols.
  119. True or False. Cultural differences can have a major impact on the performance of organizations and the quality of work life experienced by their members.
  120. One of the key ways management influences the organizational culture is through the __________ it establishes.
  121. When employees at 3M talk about the quality of their products and the useful products they have brought to market, they are addressing the __________ aspect of organizational culture.
  122. True or False. The organizational culture of a firm emerges from a) the dialog and discourse among its members and their collective experience over time, b) the attempts by managers to influence subordinates and c) pressures from the larger environment in which the members, the managers and organization operate.
  123. Organizational __________ are unproven and often unstated beliefs that are accepted uncritically.
  124. True or False. In the business setting, organizational culture is called societal culture.
  125. True or False. Organizational culture often specifies when various types of actions are appropriate and where individual members stand in the social system.
  126. At McDonald's, their __________ is the system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within the organization and guides the behavior of its members.
  127. True or False. Research finds that most organizational cultures are similar if not identical to one another.
  128. True or False. In European firms, subcultures may form based on the date of graduation from a university, gender, or geographic location.
  129. One of the key ways management influences the organizational culture is via the
  130. True or False. The external adaptation function of organizational culture concerns issues regarding tasks to be accomplished, methods used to achieve the goals, and methods of coping with success and failure.
  131. True or False. Members of an organization, through their collective experience, can solve two extremely important survival issues: 1) internal adaptation, and 2) competition integration.
  132. Which of the following statements about shared meanings in organizations is NOT correct?
  133. True or False. In Japanese organizations, subcultures often form based on the date of graduation from a university, gender, or geographic location.
  134. In the aftermath of 9/11, many casual observers saw crane operators moving wreckage from an 18-acre pile of rubble that was once the Twin Towers at the World Trade Center. However, those actually doing the work were not just hauling away the remnants of the Twin Towers. They were rebuilding America. This is an example of which of the following?
  135. True or False. Interestingly, strong subcultures are seldom found in high-performance taskforces, teams, and special project groups in organizations.

 

MGT/312T Week 5 Discussion Question & Answer

Organizational Culture
How can the culture of an organization contribute to overall employee satisfaction?
What elements contribute to the overall culture of an organization?